On 16 January 2014 20:00, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:

>  On 1/15/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 16 January 2014 14:11, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>
>>  You can do that (in fact it may have been done).  You have two emitters
>> with polarizers and a detector at which you post-select only those
>> particles that arrive and form a singlet.  Then you will find that the
>> correlation counts for that subset violates Bell's inequality for polarizer
>> settings of 30, 60, 120deg.
>>
>>  I assume that means Price's (and Bell's) assumption that violations of
> Bell's inequality can be explained locally and realistically with time
> symmetry is definitely wrong...?
>
>
> ?? Why do you conclude that?  It's the time-reverse of the EPR that
> violated BI.
>
> Because as I (perhaps mis-) understand it, Price claims that we need to
take both past AND future boundary conditions into account to explain EPR
with time symmetry. If we can explain it with only a forward in time or
backward in time explanation, then we aren't using both.

Or I may be missing the point. That often happens. Now that I think about
it, I probably am. I shall go into the garden and eat worms, and while I
tuck in maybe you could explain to me whether I jumped to completely the
wrong conclusion.

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