On 17 January 2014 07:56, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

>  On 1/16/2014 1:48 AM, LizR wrote:
>  On 16 January 2014 20:00, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>>   On 1/15/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:
>>  On 16 January 2014 14:11, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>>>  You can do that (in fact it may have been done).  You have two
>>> emitters with polarizers and a detector at which you post-select only those
>>> particles that arrive and form a singlet.  Then you will find that the
>>> correlation counts for that subset violates Bell's inequality for polarizer
>>> settings of 30, 60, 120deg.
>>>  I assume that means Price's (and Bell's) assumption that violations of
>> Bell's inequality can be explained locally and realistically with time
>> symmetry is definitely wrong...?
>>  ?? Why do you conclude that?  It's the time-reverse of the EPR that
>> violated BI.
>>  Because as I (perhaps mis-) understand it, Price claims that we need to
> take both past AND future boundary conditions into account to explain EPR
> with time symmetry. If we can explain it with only a forward in time or
> backward in time explanation, then we aren't using both.
> But in the reverse EPR we are in effect using both past and future
> boundary conditions.  At the emitters we set the polarizers - that's the
> past boundary condition.  At the single detector we post-select only those
> incoming pairs that form a net-zero spin; so that's a future boundary
> condition.

I must admit I thought you were saying we could do it using ONLY the future
boundary conditions. If you use both then you should logically use both in
the forwards case, too, so I assume Price's explanation still stands.


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