On 17 January 2014 07:56, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On 1/16/2014 1:48 AM, LizR wrote:
>
> On 16 January 2014 20:00, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>
>> On 1/15/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:
>>
>> On 16 January 2014 14:11, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>> You can do that (in fact it may have been done). You have two
>>> emitters with polarizers and a detector at which you post-select only those
>>> particles that arrive and form a singlet. Then you will find that the
>>> correlation counts for that subset violates Bell's inequality for polarizer
>>> settings of 30, 60, 120deg.
>>>
>>> I assume that means Price's (and Bell's) assumption that violations of
>> Bell's inequality can be explained locally and realistically with time
>> symmetry is definitely wrong...?
>>
>>
>> ?? Why do you conclude that? It's the time-reverse of the EPR that
>> violated BI.
>>
>> Because as I (perhaps mis-) understand it, Price claims that we need to
> take both past AND future boundary conditions into account to explain EPR
> with time symmetry. If we can explain it with only a forward in time or
> backward in time explanation, then we aren't using both.
>
>
> But in the reverse EPR we are in effect using both past and future
> boundary conditions. At the emitters we set the polarizers - that's the
> past boundary condition. At the single detector we post-select only those
> incoming pairs that form a net-zero spin; so that's a future boundary
> condition.
>

##
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I must admit I thought you were saying we could do it using ONLY the future
boundary conditions. If you use both then you should logically use both in
the forwards case, too, so I assume Price's explanation still stands.
>
>
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