On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 6:02 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

>  On 1/21/2014 3:30 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 3:30 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>
>>  On 1/21/2014 8:13 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>
>>   Why would you want to do that? It seems like an unnecessary extra
>> axiom that doesn't have any purpose or utility.
>>
>>
>> It prevents the paradoxes of undeciability, Cantor diagonalization, and
>> it corresponds more directly with how we actually use arithmetic.
>>
>>
>>  I'm not sure it helps. What you may gain from avoiding paradoxes makes
>> many of our accepted proofs false. E.g. Euclids proof of infinite primes.
>> Or Euler's identity. Most of math would be ruined. A circle's circumference
>> would not even be pi*diameter.
>>
>>  Would this biggest number be different for different beings in
>> different universes? What is it contingent on?
>>
>>
>>  You're taking an Platonic view that there really is an arithmetic and
>> whether there's a biggest number is an empirical question.  I'm saying it's
>> an invention.  We invented an system in which you can always add 1 because
>> that was convenient; you don't have to think about whether you can or not.
>>
>
>  So to use this same line of reasoning, would you say there is no
> definite (a priori) fact of the matter of  whether or not a given program
> terminates, unless we actually build a machine executing that program and
> observe it terminate?
>
>
> That's kind of mixing categories since 'program' (to you) means something
> in Platonia and there you don't need a machine to run it.
>

You're right, it is mixing categories, yet for some reason I still think
the question "would this machine halt on its own, if given enough resources
to run forever" is a meaningful question, which has a definite answer, even
if we don't (or can't) determine it.


>   In the physical world there is no question, all programs running on a
> machine terminate, for one reason or another.  Non-terminating programs are
> the result of over idealization.
>
>
>
>  If that is the case, when is it determined (for us) that a certain
> program terminates? Is it when the first being anywhere in any universe
> tests it, when someone in our universe tests it, when someone in our past
> light cone tests it, when you test it yourself or read about someone who
> did? Would it ever be possible for two beings in two different universes to
> find different results regarding the same program? If not, then what
> enforces this agreement?
>
>
>>  But if it leads to paradoxes or absurdities we should just modify our
>> invention keeping the good part and avoiding the paradoxes if we can.
>> Peano's arithmetic will still be there in Platonia and sqrt(2) will be
>> irrational there.  But the diagonal of a unit square may depend on how we
>> measure it or what it's made of.
>>
>
>  Does this instrumentalist approach prevents one from having a theory of
> reality?
>
>
> Who said it's instrumentalist?  Just because it considers a finite model
> of reality?
>

No, it was just your comment "the diagonal of a unit square may depend on
how we measure it" that made me think you were implying there is no reality
except what we can measure.

Jason


>   When Bruno proposes to base things on arithmetic and leave analysis and
> set theory alone, does that make him an instrumentalist?
>
>
Brent
>
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