On 5/8/2014 6:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 May 2014, at 17:39, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-05-07 17:20 GMT+02:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected] 
<mailto:[email protected]>>:


    On 07 May 2014, at 11:41, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




    2014-05-07 11:13 GMT+02:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]
    <mailto:[email protected]>>:


        On 06 May 2014, at 20:22, [email protected] <mailto:[email protected]> 
wrote:

        <snip>





        But you do not ever make a hard prediction Bruno.

        I have no clue why you say that. It is the object of the whole work. 
You seem
        to misunderstand something in the UDA.


    I have to agree with ghibbsa... your actual prediction are vague, there 
isn't any
    numerical hard predictions that we could do an experiment and compare and 
refute
    or not...
    And even if you would give any, you can always ascribe the non-corresponding
    result to geography... I asked you several time what in comp is not 
"geography" ?
    As comp entails all and every simulations (as precise as we can imagine 
them to
    be), it contains all numericable value for any observable... so it must be
    geography... so what *hard* prediction does comp make that can falsify it 
here and
    now ? I really mean hard prediction, not some vague retrodiction of current 
theories.


    Comp, and to my knowledge, only classical comp,  gives a precise criteria to
    distinguish physics and geography.

    Physics concerns laws, that is physical rules of prediction true for all 
universal
    machine. Geographies concern only  prediction which are contingently 
verified.


So what are physical facts that comp predict ? what laws ? what can I measure in this universe that would not be *geography* but *true for all universal machine* and be able to falsify comp ? what is it ? what is the predicted value ? How comp predict it ? How can I measure it and confront it to comp prediction ?


You can test the boolean tautologies, like this simple form of Bell's 
inequality:

(A & B) -> (A & C) V (B & ~C)

Both QM and comp predicts that it can be violated. That means comp predicts the existence of three observable A, B and C such that a measurement of A, B and C gives a result violating it. That is the measurement of A, and B gives 1, and neither A & C nor B V ~C gives 1. The Kripke structure providing the comp counter-example (through the modal translation of that inequality) can provide constructive tools to build the experimental device to make the violation experimental.

So what is the counter-example?


More systematically, you can test all boolean tautologies in comp, and it has been verified, with those not being too much complex, that they are violated by comp if and only if they are violated by QM.

Is there a list of these somewhere?

Brent



There are reasons to expect the measure on sigma_1 sentences to be deducible from that comp quantum logic, although this is without doubt quite difficult to do, but in principle possible (and by UDA + classical theory of knowledge) necessary. More on this much later in the math thread.

Best,

Bruno









Regards,
Quentin


    We have no choice on this. Without incompleteness, all modalities 
corresponding to
    the arithmetical definitions of the points of view would collapse, and in 
that
    case, but only in that case, physics would have been reduced to an empty 
set, or to
    a boolean logic, and all physical facts would have been shown to be 
geographical.

    That case is ruled out by incompleteness. So we have a non trivial (non 
empty) set
    of physical laws, and we have that the observable obeys a different logic 
than
    boolean logic. Indeed the math shows already a quantum logic.

    Now we can test quantitatively if our observable verifies that logic. 
Indeed the
    quantitative result already obtained rules out boolean logic, and are given 
by
    quantum logic, and comp predicts and explains exactly that.

    From each Kripke model of the translation of that quantum logic in G, which 
is an
    the output of the theorem prover for the logics Z1* (and S4Grz1, and X1*), 
you can
    build experimental devices refuting classical computationalism.

    You argument based on the fact that comp entails all and every simulations, 
does
    not work, because physics is given by the first person indeterminacy on the 
points
    of view, and so to get the number exact, you need the exact *proportions* 
on the
    relative continuations, which is what today is given by quantum 
probabilities, and
    comp confirms and explain that.

    The rest are open problem, and it is just a (difficult) exercise to see if 
qZ1* can
    justifiy the presence or not of a "real time" quantum computer. As I tend to
    believe QM (as physical, not geographical), if neither qS4Grz1, qZ1*, qX1* 
can
    emulate a quantum computer, I would consider that as making classical comp, 
if not
    comp itself, refuted.

    Note that it would be very astonishing that the Comp Quantum Logic is equal 
to von
    Neuman main quantum logics, because their modal descriptions are not 
exactly the
    same (we lost the necessitation rules), and so get plausibly some different
    physical predictions already, but without progressing in some optimization 
of the
    theorem prover of those modal logics, we cannot say having isolate the 
experimental
    device making the difference.

    The P = 1/2 in the WM-duplication, is a physical law, but the events "I am in 
W"
    and "I am in M" are contingent. "Once in M I stay in M" is physical, well 
it should
    be, and it is the case when you do the math.

    By UDA comp generalizes QM. Instead of Everett quantum relative 
computational
    states, we have *all* comp relative computational states, and the 
appearance of the
    universal wave is already partially explained (and retrodict) by the 
universal
    machine introspection (or the arithmetical UDA-reflexion). The point of UDA 
is that
    we *have to do* that generalization, if saying yes to the doctor is correct 
at some
    level, so that Everett's work is not completed.

    At first sight the probabilities can only add in the UD*, but that is 
exactly what
    the machine explains as not obeying a boolean logic, and obeying a quantum 
logic.
    The arithmetical quantization are given, the rest is technical, highly 
technical
    (and that is a weakness if you want, as philosophers fear math, and 
mathematicians
    fear philosophy, today).

    If classical comp is false, the qZ1* machinery provides a tool to measure
    experimentally our divergence from comp.

    My feeling is that somewhere you might forget that physics is 1p (plural) 
and non
    Turing emulable a priori, as you cannot emulate at each physical instant 
the entire
    UD*. You can fail a simulated observer either by simulating the right 
quantum logic
    below its substitution level, but then from his point of view, he is in all
    versions of that "correct" simulation, or by building a lie and revised 
infinitely
    often your program along with the observation progress of the simulated 
observer.

    I guess more precisions will be given in the math thread.


    Bruno


    http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ <http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/>


--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email 
to [email protected].
To post to this group, send email to [email protected].
Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list.
For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.

Reply via email to