On 28 May 2015, at 12:03, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:
On 26 May 2015 at 16:59, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected] >> wrote:
   LizR wrote:
       On 26 May 2015 at 05:45, John Clark <[email protected]
           Of that I have no opinion because nobody knows what "comp"
       means,
           least of all Bruno.
       Comp is the theory that consciousness is the product of
       Turing-emulable processes, i.e. that it's a computation.
Actually, that strictly does not follow. All that follows is that a
   computer can emulate certain physical processes upon which
consciousness supervenes. This does not mean that consciousness is a computation, in Platonia or anywhere else. I may have been too hasty. Comp ("comp1") is the theory that it's the /outcome/ of a computation, at some level. All that we know from the evidence is that consciousness supervenes
   on physical brains.
We don't actually know this, although the evidence appears to suggest it.

On that basis we don't ever know anything!


Yes. Knowing is personal, and the wise stay mute on this. But we can share our theories or hypotheses. And compare the consequences.




That might well be the case, but science does not operate on such impossible certainties. We have a working hypothesis that consciousness supervenes on the physical brain.

Yes, but the most common explanation is based on the facts that at some level, only elementary relations are involved, making the whole thing Turing emulable. Consciousness might then be related to the computation done by the brain, and not to the physical activity, which is only contingently related to that computation, at least in some sense.




So far all the evidence supports this hypothesis,

No, the UDA point explains the difficulty. You can associate the 1p consciousness to a person "run" by some machine, but the person run itself cannot, unless invoking oracles or infinite amount of information.




and there is no evidence to the contrary.

The fact that the brain does not seem to use magic, or actual infinities, can be seen as an evidence for what Liz call comp1, and then comp1 leads to comp2, by logic + the usual Occam.



That is good enough for the scientist in me.

Because you restrict science to Aristotelian theology. You keep the scientific attitude in physics, but are unaware of the difficulties of physicalism in fundamental cognitive science.

But I think the problem is mainly solved, up to the verification which has to be pursued (forever).

To be short, and ask precision if you want, but the *fact* is that numbers "dream", relatively to each others, in a precise mathematical sense (assuming Turing emulability, which entails arithmetical emulability). Self-correctness make dream cohering with a multi-users sharable stable universal environment.
Numbers cannot miss the appearances of the observable.

You can, as scientist, understand the theory, before grasping (or refuting) that it follows logically from computationalism, and technically from theoretical computer science.

I think that you are not really interested in "philosophy of mind", as you would perhaps better appreciate the complexity of the subject, even when using a priori "simplifying" assumption, like computationalism.

If you have a physical theory of consciousness, which does not borrow the mathematical theory of computation, please elaborate.

Computationalism is not a threat to physics, only to the metaphysical assumption that the physical is necessarily the real thing. With comp, and perhaps even without, evidences accumulate that the physical might be the border of the "real thing" (which is a mathematical structure related to the way machine can introspect itself, the universal- machine mind).

Bruno






Bruce

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