On 19 Apr 2016, at 13:10, 'scerir' via Everything List wrote:
BTW, surprisingly the debate about the real meaning of (the two)
Bell’s theorems
(locality, local causality, predetermination, predictability,
separability, determinism,
counterfactual definiteness, realism, etc.) is still going on .......
Here is some (very short) literature
J.S. Bell’s Concept of Local Causality
Travis Norsen
https://arxiv.org/pdf/0707.0401v3
Local Causality and Completeness: Bell vs. Jarrett
Travis Norsen
https://arxiv.org/abs/0808.2178
Does quantum nonlocality irremediably conflict with Special
Relativity?
GianCarlo Ghirardi
https://arxiv.org/abs/0912.0177
The Two Bell's Theorems of John Bell
Howard M. Wiseman
https://arxiv.org/abs/1402.0351
Causarum Investigatio and the Two Bell's Theorems of John Bell
Howard M. Wiseman, Eric G. Cavalcanti
https://arxiv.org/abs/1503.06413
Are there really two different Bell's theorems?
Travis Norsen
https://arxiv.org/abs/1503.05017
Reply to Norsen's paper "Are there really two different Bell's
theorems?"
Howard M. Wiseman, Eleanor G. Rieffel
https://arxiv.org/abs/1503.06978
What Bell Did
Tim Maudlin
https://arxiv.org/abs/1408.1826
Tim Maudlin is good on this subject. He wrote also an excellent (imo)
book on non-locality ("Quantum Non-Locality & Relativity" . I share
all its conclusions there, and in this paper too, except what I have
put, below, in bold-underline (which I would replace by the fact that
we need "only" some technical treatment of the first and third person
pov distinction, but that is what computer science and mathematical
logic offer on a plate (with the second recursion theorem notably)
(and with the measure problem as a gift, of course).
(Sorry for the bad format): Tim wrote:
<<Finally, there is one big idea. Bell showed that measurements
made far apart cannot regularly display correlations that violate his
inequality if the world is local.
But this requires that the measurements have results in order
that there be the
requisite correlations. What if no “measurement” ever has a
unique result at all;
what if all the “possible outcomes” occur? What would it even mean
to say that in
such a situation there is some correlation among the
“outcomes of these
measurements”?
This is, of course, the idea of the Many Worlds interpretation. It
does not refute
Bell’s analysis, but rather moots it: in this picture, phenomena in
the physical world
do not, after all, display correlations between distant experiments
that violate Bell’s
inequality, somehow it just seems that they do. Indeed, the world does
not actually
conform to the predictions of quantum theory at all (in
particular, the prediction
that these sorts of experiments have single unique outcomes, which
correspond to
eigenvalues), it just seems that way. So Bell’s result cannot get a
grip on this theory.
That does not prove that Many Worlds is local: it just shows that
Bell’s result
does not prove that it isn’t local. In order to even address the
question of the locality
of Many Worlds a tremendous amount of interpretive work has to be
done. [My emphasis]
>>
Bruno
Reply to Werner
Tim Maudlin
https://arxiv.org/abs/1408.1828
What Maudlin replied to
R. F. Werner
https://arxiv.org/abs/1411.2120
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