On 22/04/2016 5:17 am, Jesse Mazer wrote:
On Wed, Apr 20, 2016 at 7:51 PM, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:

    On 21/04/2016 1:34 am, Jesse Mazer wrote:
    On Tue, Apr 19, 2016 at 8:54 PM, Bruce Kellett
    <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>>
    wrote:

        So, the fact that these simulated results were supposed to
        have come from an entangled singlet pair has not been used
        anywhere in your simulation. It has only ever been used to
        link the copies of Alice and Bob, the statistics that they
        observe come entirely from what you happen to put in you
        accumulator for each setting of the relative orientations.


    Saying the idea of a singlet pair "has not been used anywhere in
    your simulation" and then saying it has "been used to link the
    copies of Alice and Bob" seems like a contradiction--isn't the
    linking itself part of the simulation?
    No, there is no contradiction. You have used the fact that they
    are measuring parts of an entangled system only to link the sets
    of results. Nowhere have you used the quantum properties of the
    entangled singlet pair in the simulation to calculate the
    probabilities: you have imposed those probabilities from outside
    by fiat.


Sure, it's a toy model so I just tailor it to give the correct statistics for a single type of quantum experiment. But if I were to try to do the same thing in a scheme where there *weren't* multiple copies of Alice and Bob, so that each had to get a unique result *at the place and time they make a measurement* (not just later when they compare results), then Bell's theorem absolutely rules out doing this in any classical setup that respects locality, even toy models. So, the toy model is just mean to illustrate the principle that Bell's theorem isn't applicable to situations where measurements don't yield unique outcomes but just yield a bunch of different copies of a system at a given location in space at a given time.

interesting. So you agree that you just feed in the statistics that you want to come out -- they do not come from any principle physics that your computers simulate. But each particular Alice and Bob we might consider has to get a unique result for an experiment that they perform.

I am glad you agree that if you consider the actual physical situation, locality is ruled out by the observed statistics. The fact that a measurement might yield one of a series of different results does not alter the fact that, in the multiworlds picture, there is only one result in each possible branch. That is all I have ever claimed, and all that is required for my conceptual argument to go through completely.

Once you accept this general principle, you can see that Bell's theorem doesn't offer any fundamental obstacle to reformulating the general laws of quantum mechanics in a way that yields the same predictions about *all* observations using purely local equations, of the kind that could be simulated on a computer where you have a bunch of separate computers calculating how physical variables are evolving in a confined region of space, and each computer can only get data from other computers representing neighboring regions, in a locality-respecting way. As I said, my reading of the non-mathematical parts of Mark Rubin's paper suggests that the paper is coming up with exactly such a model, albeit one that is only equivalent to a non-relativistic quantum field theory (perhaps the math of doing it for a relativistic field theory would be more difficult).

If you mean that you can recover locality for measurements on entangled pairs in this way, then you have a different theory which is not consistent with quantum mechanics.

You seem to be saying this is impossible in principle, and you're confident enough of this to dismiss the possibility Rubin's paper has done this without apparently understanding the mathematical details either. So, given what I said above, should I take this to mean you think you have an argument for the impossibility which is entirely independent of Bell's theorem? If so you could you try to spell it out in a more detailed, step-by-step way?
I have done this in the thread with smitra. The min conceptual argument is contained in the humorous little scenario I devised:

I dream of some "XKCD-style" cartoon. Alice and Bob perform their experiments with particular settings and get particular results, which they separately record in lab books. Several weeks later, they meet up in a cafe down the street for a coffee. Alice puts her lab book with her results on the table, "Look", she says, "I got |+> with my magnet set at zero degrees to our agreed reference orientation." There is a pause.......then Bob slowly lays out his lab book. "Holy shit!", he says, "I also got |+> at zero degrees to our agreed reference." They look at each other with gradually increasing dismay........ "Fuck!", they say in unison. "That means that we don't exist..........." Their voices fade into silence, and then...........Nothing!.


The point here is that some combinations of results are forbidden. How can this happen? Following back the train of information exchange between the participants, and accepting that worlds, once decohered, cannot suddenly disappear, it becomes apparent that the zero probability branches cannot arise because they are forbidden at the stage when A and B are still at spacelike separations. So they are forbidden non-locally.

That is all that is required to demonstrate that MWI does not remove non-locality from quantum mechanics.

Bruce

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