On Tuesday, December 19, 2017 at 3:32:22 AM UTC, Brent wrote:
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>
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> On 12/18/2017 6:36 PM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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> On Monday, December 18, 2017 at 8:48:08 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>
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>> On 12/18/2017 12:19 AM, [email protected] wrote:
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>> On Sunday, December 17, 2017 at 10:39:18 PM UTC, [email protected] 
>> wrote: 
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Sunday, December 17, 2017 at 12:21:27 AM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 12/16/2017 2:59 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>
>>>> There's a problem applying SR in this situation because neither the 
>>>> ground or orbiting clock is an inertial frame.AG
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> An orbiting clock is in an inertial frame.  An inertial frame is just 
>>>> one in which no forces are acting (and gravity is not a force) so that it 
>>>> moves with constant momentum along a geodesic.  Although it's convenient 
>>>> for engineering calculations, from a fundamental veiwpoint there is no 
>>>> separate special relativity and general relativity and no separate clock 
>>>> corrections.  General is just special relativity in curved spacetime.  So 
>>>> clocks measure the 4-space interval along their path - whether that path 
>>>> is 
>>>> geodesic (i.e. inertial) or accelerated.
>>>>
>>>
>>> *Interesting way to look at it. So free falling in a gravity field is an 
>>> extension of SR. But the thing I find puzzling is that in GR the curvature 
>>> of space-time is caused by the presence of mass, yet I can draw the path of 
>>> an accelerated body as necessarily a curve in a space-time diagram. I am 
>>> having trouble resolving these different sources of curvature. AG*
>>>
>>
>> *Einstein must have figured that since gravity produces an acceleration 
>> field, and accelerating test particles move along curved paths in 
>> space-time, he could replace acceleration by inertial paths in a space-time 
>> curved by the presence of mass-energy. But now, when comparing test 
>> particles moving along different paths in space-time, he couldn't use the 
>> Lorentz transformation because the relative velocities of the frames are 
>> not necessarily constant. So how did he propose to find the correct 
>> transformation equations, and what are they? And what were the laws of 
>> physics, in this case gravity, that had to be invariant? AG*
>>
>>
>> What's invariant is the measure along a path in spacetime - it's what an 
>> ideal clock measures.  The relation between the measure along two different 
>> paths obviously depends on the lumpiness of the spacetime through which 
>> they travel.  It's as if I headed north thru the Sierras while you sailed 
>> up the coast.  There's no simple relation between our path lengths even if 
>> we travel between the same two points.  
>>
>
> *So what's invariant along along two paths with the same endpoints? *
>
>
> It's not about two paths.  The length of each path as measured using 
> Einstein's  theory of the metric (i.e. as warped by mass-energy) is an 
> invariant.  Just as the distance your car's odometer would measure driving 
> from NY to LA, it's some number and it depends on (a) the path you took and 
> (b) the topography along that path.  The interesting point is that two such 
> paths between a pair of events are different durations as measured by 
> clocks carried along the trips.  That's contrary to Newton, for whom time 
> was an invariant.
>
> *Not clear from what you write. But whatever it is, why is that deemed to 
> be invariant? *
>
>
> Because it doesn't depend on what reference system you use in spacetime.  
> It's measuring a distance which is a real thing, not something 
> relative/subjective.
>
> *Shouldn't it be the laws of physics, in this case gravity, and hence the 
> field equations? AG *
>
>
> It's the basis for them.  They can be written in terms of an extremal 
> principle for the invariant path lengths.
>



*Is this the method Einstein used to derive the field equations? This is 
one of my key interests in this subject; to understand the method he used 
to derive the field equations. If so, why is invariant path lengths such a 
crucial condition? I agree that physics seeks invariants, but why this 
particular one? AG* 

The Lorentz transformation is just the simple limiting case of flat, smooth 
> spacetime.  It's useful because in a sufficiently small local region 
> spacetime is going to be flat and smooth.
>
> Brent
>
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