On Tuesday, May 1, 2018 at 3:30:31 PM UTC, Brent wrote:
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>
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> On 5/1/2018 12:40 AM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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> On Tuesday, May 1, 2018 at 6:57:14 AM UTC, scerir wrote: 
>>
>> *AG: 'I suppose people will appeal to entanglement and decoherence to try 
>> to make sense of how a measurement occurs. Nevertheless,  I tend strongly 
>> to the view that the theory is inherently irreversible; that is, TIME 
>> IRREVERSIBLE IN PRINCIPLE  If so, it implies the arrow of time has its 
>> origin at the quantum level.'* 
>>
>> #### Maybe. 
>>
>> But ... since we say that there is non-separability between 
>> (position/momentum or time/energy) entangled quantum states, can we also 
>> say there is quantum non-separability not just *in space* (i.e. correlation 
>> between space-like separated events) but also *in time* (there is no 
>> *causal* ordering)? 
>>
>> Are there Bell's inequalities for correlations *in time*?  s.
>>
>
> Sure. Just make the measurements at time-like separate events.  It's not 
> so interesting because then there could be a local (slower than light) 
> hidden variable that would explain the result.
>
> https://arxiv.org/abs/1712.06884
>>
>> https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.00248
>>
>
> *If two events are space-like separated, I think it's correct to say there 
> is no causal ordering. However, when analyzing time reversal for 
> measurements -- whether or not it exists in QM -- aren't we dealing with 
> time-like ordering in the laboratory wherein the "first" measurement 
> occurred? AG*
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>
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> Spacelike events have no time order.  Their order varies depending on your 
> choice of coordinate system.  
>
> Brent
>

*Right; that's what I wrote above. But it isn't obvious, and might not be 
the case, that ascausal ordering, aka space-like separation, comes into 
play when doing a thought experiment on reversing a quantum measurement. 
Why would it, how could it come into play? AG*. 

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