On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 12:50:04 PM UTC+1, [email protected] wrote:
>
>
>
> On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 10:27:07 AM UTC, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 3:37:05 AM UTC+1, [email protected] 
>> wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>> *So what? The point I am making is that some mathematical objects exist 
>>> but are not instantiated in physical reality, thus falsifying his 
>>> hypothesis, unless you insist that they are instantiated in other 
>>> universes, in which case you have a non falsifiable theory, which isn't a 
>>> scientific theory. AG*
>>>
>>
>> If it is logically consistent for a mathematical object to be 
>> instantiated in a universe then it is instantiated there. 
>>
>
> *I think you mean that if some mathematical construct does not contradict 
> the laws of physics in some universe, then it must be instantiated in that 
> universe. And the reason for that is what? Why must all logically 
> consistent constructs be instantiated?*
>

Because it follows from the definition of existence as logical consistency.

 

>
> * This idea seems perilously close to another false idea; namely, that 
> every outcome of a quantum experiment must be observed in some universe. AG*
>

How do you know many-worlds interpretation of QM is false? As far as I am 
concerned, it is false if it is inconsistent.


> *Since it can't be falsified and makes no testable predictions, what value 
> does it have? AG*
>

Some multiverse theories may be testable. As for Tegmark's ultimate 
multiverse theory, I don't know if it can be useful for physics. For me it 
is philosophically useful because it clarifies what it means to exist. 

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