On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 11:38:02 PM UTC, Brent wrote:
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> On 10/28/2018 4:50 AM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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> On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 10:27:07 AM UTC, Tomas Pales wrote: 
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>> On Sunday, October 28, 2018 at 3:37:05 AM UTC+1, [email protected] 
>> wrote: 
>>>
>>>
>>> *So what? The point I am making is that some mathematical objects exist 
>>> but are not instantiated in physical reality, thus falsifying his 
>>> hypothesis, unless you insist that they are instantiated in other 
>>> universes, in which case you have a non falsifiable theory, which isn't a 
>>> scientific theory. AG*
>>>
>>
>> If it is logically consistent for a mathematical object to be 
>> instantiated in a universe then it is instantiated there. 
>>
>
> *I think you mean that if some mathematical construct does not contradict 
> the laws of physics in some universe, then it must be instantiated in that 
> universe. *
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>
> That's not what he said.  He said all logically consistent objects must 
> exist.  Breaking one of the laws of physics, e.g. not conserving 
> 4-momentum, is not a* logical contradiction* of anything. 
>

*I definitely recall him saying that NOT breaking a law of physics would be 
a necessary condition for something to be instantiated.  AG*

>
> Brent
>
>
> *And the reason for that is what? Why must all logically consistent 
> constructs be instantiated? This idea seems perilously close to another 
> false idea; namely, that every outcome of a quantum experiment must be 
> observed in some universe. AG *
>  
>
>> Whether it is a falsifiable or scientific theory is a different matter. 
>>
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> *Since it can't be falsified and makes no testable predictions, what value 
> does it have? AG*
>
>     Tegmark's view, logical consistency is existence, so anything that is 
> logically consistent exists, by definition. You can devise other 
> definitions of existence by arbitrarily restricting this one.
>
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