On 4/9/2019 12:47 PM, agrayson2...@gmail.com wrote:


On Tuesday, April 9, 2019 at 1:35:34 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



    On 4/9/2019 11:55 AM, agrays...@gmail.com <javascript:> wrote:


    On Tuesday, April 9, 2019 at 12:05:11 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



        On 4/9/2019 7:52 AM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


        On Monday, April 8, 2019 at 11:16:25 PM UTC-6,
        agrays...@gmail.com wrote:

            In GR, is there a distinction between coordinate systems
            and frames of reference? AG??


        Here's the problem; there's a GR expert known to some
        members of this list, who claims GR does NOT distinguish
        coordinate systems from frames of reference. He also claims
        that given an arbitrary coordinate system on a manifold, and
        any given point in space-time, it's possible to find a
        transformation from the given coordinate system (and using
        Einstein's Equivalence Principle), to another coordinate
        system which is locally flat at the arbitrarily given point
        in space-time. This implies that a test particle is in free
        fall at that point in space-time. But how can changing
        labels on space-time points, change the physical properties
        of a test particle at some arbitrarily chosen point in
        space-time? I believe that such a transformation implies a
        DIFFERENT frame of reference, in motion, possibly
        accelerated, from the original frame or coordinate system.
        Am I correct? TIA, AG

        You're right that a coordinate system is just a function for
        labeling points and, while is may make the equations messy or
        simple, it doesn't change the physics.?? If you have two
        different coordinate systems the transformation between them
        may be arbitrarily complicated.?? But your last sentence
        referring to motion as distinguishing a coordinate transform
        from a reference frame seems to have slipped into a 3D
        picture.?? In a 4D spacetime, block universe there's no
        difference between an accelerated reference frame and one
        defined by coordinates that are not geodesic.

        Brent


    Suppose the test particle is on a geodesic path in one coordinate
    system, but in another it's on an approximately flat 4D surface
    at some point in the transformed coordinate system.

    A geodesic is a physically defined path, one of extremal length. 
    It's independent of coordinate systems and reference frames.  If a
    geodesic is not a geodesic in your transformed coordinate system,
    then you've done something wrong in transforming the metric.

    Brent


It would clarify the situation if you would state the acceptable before and after states of a coordinate transformation that puts the test particle in a locally flat region for some chosen point in the transformed coordinate system. AG

Like "geodesic" being "locally flat" is a physical characteristic of the spacetime.  It's just part of being a Riemannian space that there is a sufficiently small region around any point that is "flat".  This is the mathematical correlate of Einstein's equivalence principle.  So it is not the coordinate system or any transformation that "puts the particle in a flat region".  It's just a property of the space being smooth and differentiable so that even a curved spacetime at every point has a flat tangent space.

Brent


    Doesn't this represent a change in the physics via a change in
    labeling the space-time points?  How is this possible without a
    change in the frame of reference, and if so, how would that be
    described if not by acceleration? AG
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