On 4/17/2019 12:36 PM, agrayson2...@gmail.com wrote:


On Wednesday, April 17, 2019 at 1:02:09 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



    On 4/17/2019 7:37 AM, agrays...@gmail.com <javascript:> wrote:


    On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 9:15:40 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



        On 4/16/2019 6:14 PM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


        On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:39:11 PM UTC-6,
        agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



            On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:10:16 PM UTC-6, Brent
            wrote:



                On 4/16/2019 11:41 AM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


                On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 9:26:59 PM UTC-6,
                Brent wrote:



                    On 4/15/2019 7:14 PM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


                    On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6,
                    agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



                        On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM
                        UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                            On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM,
                            agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


                            On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at
                            7:12:17 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                                On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM,
                                agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


                                On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at
                                4:37:39 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                                    On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM,
                                    agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



                                        He might have been
                                        referring to a
                                        transformation to a
                                        tangent space where
                                        the metric tensor is
                                        diagonalized and its
                                        derivative at that
                                        point in spacetime is
                                        zero. Does this make
                                        any sense?

                                        Sort of.



                                    Yeah, that's what he's
                                    doing. He's assuming a
                                    given coordinate system and
                                    some arbitrary point in a
                                    non-empty spacetime. So
                                    spacetime has a non zero
                                    curvature and the
                                    derivative of the metric
                                    tensor is generally
                                    non-zero at that arbitrary
                                    point, however small we
                                    assume the region around
                                    that point. But applying
                                    the EEP, we can transform
                                    to the tangent space at
                                    that point to diagonalize
                                    the metric tensor and have
                                    its derivative as zero at
                                    that point. Does THIS make
                                    sense? AG

                                    Yep.  That's pretty much the
                                    defining characteristic of a
                                    Riemannian space.

                                    Brent


                                But isn't it weird that changing
                                labels on spacetime points by
                                transforming coordinates has the
                                result of putting the test
                                particle in local free fall,
                                when it wasn't prior to the
                                transformation? AG

                                It doesn't put it in free-fall. 
                                If the particle has EM forces on
                                it, it will deviate from the
                                geodesic in the tangent space
                                coordinates. The transformation
                                is just adapting the coordinates
                                to the local free-fall which
                                removes gravity as a force...but
                                not other forces.

                                Brent


                            In both cases, with and without
                            non-gravitational forces acting on
                            test particle, I assume the
                            trajectory appears identical to an
                            external observer, before and after
                            coordinate transformation to the
                            tangent plane at some point; all
                            that's changed are the labels of
                            spacetime points. If this is true,
                            it's still hard to see why changing
                            labels can remove the gravitational
                            forces. And what does this buy us? AG

                            You're looking at it the wrong way
                            around.  There never were any
                            gravitational forces, just your choice
                            of coordinate system made fictitious
                            forces appear; just like when you use
                            a merry-go-round as your reference
                            frame you get coriolis forces.


                        If gravity is a fictitious force produced
                        by the choice of coordinate system, in its
                        absence (due to a change in coordinate
                        system) how does GR explain motion? Test
                        particles move on geodesics in the absence
                        of non-gravitational forces, but why do
                        they move at all? AG


                    Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain
                    it. AG

                    The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly
                    even try to  interpret, they mainly make
                    models. By a model is meant a mathematical
                    construct which, with the addition of certain
                    verbal  interpretations, describes observed
                    phenomena. The justification of  such a
                    mathematical construct is solely and precisely
                    that it is expected to work.
                        --—John von Neumann


                        Another problem is the inconsistency of
                        the fictitious gravitational force, and
                        how the other forces function; EM, Strong,
                        and Weak, which apparently can't be
                        removed by changes in coordinates systems. AG


                    It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of
                    small minds. I am merely pointing out the
                    inconsistency of the gravitational force with
                    the other forces. Maybe gravity is just
                    different. AG

                    That's one possibility, e.g entropic gravity.


                            What is gets you is it enforces and
                            explains the equivalence principle. 
                            And of course Einstein's theory also
                            correctly predicted the bending of
                            light, gravitational waves, time
                            dilation and the precession of the
                            perhelion of Mercury.


                        I was referring earlier just to the
                        transformation to the tangent space; what
                        specifically does it buy us; why would we
                        want to execute this particular
                        transformation? AG


                    For one thing, you know the acceleration due to
                    non-gravitational forces in this frame.


                *IIUC, the tangent space is a vector space which
                has elements with constant t.  So its elements are
                linear combinations of t, x, y, and z. How do you
                get accelerations from such sums (even if t is not
                constant)? AG*
                *
                *

                    So you can transform to it, put in the
                    accelerations, and transform back.


                *I see no way to put the accelerations into the
                tangent space at any point in spacetime. AG*

                The tangent space is just a patch of Minkowski
                space.  d/t(dx/dt) = acceleration.

                Brent


            *Sorry; I was thinking about QM, where the state of the
            system is a linear combination of component states of
            the vector space representing it. In GR, since there is
            an infinite uncountable set of tangent spaces, how can
            we be sure that our test particle is in one of those
            subspaces, called tangent states? That would be the
            case, I surmise, if the tangent spaces spanned the
            manifold. I think they do so since there's a tangent
            space at every point in the manifold.  AG *


        *The presumed test particle has a history, and each tangent
        space is a proper subset of the manifold. So is there a
        guarantee that an arbitrary test particle will have a
        history contained in a particular tangent space? AG*

        No.  It's guaranteed that at every point on the particles
        world line there is a tangent space.

        Brent


    *On a different issue, if you agree with Stenger that time is
    what is read on a clock, how do you justify labeling all
    spacetime points with a t component, which is called "time", and
    overwhelmingly will never be read on any clock? AG*

    Justify?  Just like everything in a scientific theory is
    justified...as von Neumann says, because it works.  The "t" and
    for that matter the "x y and z" never show up in any measurement,
    they are just labels for points that are smooth and continuous.

    Brent


*I don't object to the label, t, but once you call it "time" you run into the inconsistency that time in relativity is what observers read (on a clock). So, from my POV, it's better to regard it as a placeholder for a test particle that has that event in its history. AG *

But in general relativity the metric field itself is a dynamic entity.  So you need (t x y z) labels independent of particles in order to describe things like black holes and gravitational waves.

Brent

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