On 4/17/2019 7:37 AM, [email protected] wrote:


On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 9:15:40 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



    On 4/16/2019 6:14 PM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:


    On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:39:11 PM UTC-6,
    [email protected] wrote:



        On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:10:16 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



            On 4/16/2019 11:41 AM, [email protected] wrote:


            On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 9:26:59 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                On 4/15/2019 7:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:


                On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6,
                [email protected] wrote:



                    On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM
                    UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                        On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM, [email protected]
                        wrote:


                        On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 7:12:17 PM
                        UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                            On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM,
                            [email protected] wrote:


                            On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at
                            4:37:39 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                                On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM,
                                [email protected] wrote:



                                    He might have been
                                    referring to a
                                    transformation to a tangent
                                    space where the metric
                                    tensor is diagonalized and
                                    its derivative at that
                                    point in spacetime is zero.
                                    Does this make any sense?

                                    Sort of.



                                Yeah, that's what he's doing.
                                He's assuming a given coordinate
                                system and some arbitrary point
                                in a non-empty spacetime. So
                                spacetime has a non zero
                                curvature and the derivative of
                                the metric tensor is generally
                                non-zero at that arbitrary
                                point, however small we assume
                                the region around that point.
                                But applying the EEP, we can
                                transform to the tangent space
                                at that point to diagonalize the
                                metric tensor and have its
                                derivative as zero at that
                                point. Does THIS make sense? AG

                                Yep.  That's pretty much the
                                defining characteristic of a
                                Riemannian space.

                                Brent


                            But isn't it weird that changing
                            labels on spacetime points by
                            transforming coordinates has the
                            result of putting the test particle
                            in local free fall, when it wasn't
                            prior to the transformation? AG

                            It doesn't put it in free-fall.  If
                            the particle has EM forces on it, it
                            will deviate from the geodesic in the
                            tangent space coordinates.  The
                            transformation is just adapting the
                            coordinates to the local free-fall
                            which removes gravity as a force...but
                            not other forces.

                            Brent


                        In both cases, with and without
                        non-gravitational forces acting on test
                        particle, I assume the trajectory appears
                        identical to an external observer, before
                        and after coordinate transformation to the
                        tangent plane at some point; all that's
                        changed are the labels of spacetime
                        points. If this is true, it's still hard
                        to see why changing labels can remove the
                        gravitational forces. And what does this
                        buy us? AG

                        You're looking at it the wrong way around. 
                        There never were any gravitational forces,
                        just your choice of coordinate system made
                        fictitious forces appear; just like when
                        you use a merry-go-round as your reference
                        frame you get coriolis forces.


                    If gravity is a fictitious force produced by
                    the choice of coordinate system, in its absence
                    (due to a change in coordinate system) how does
                    GR explain motion? Test particles move on
                    geodesics in the absence of non-gravitational
                    forces, but why do they move at all? AG


                Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain it. AG

                The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even
                try to  interpret, they mainly make models. By a
                model is meant a  mathematical construct which, with
                the addition of certain verbal interpretations,
                describes observed phenomena. The justification of 
                such a mathematical construct is solely and
                precisely that it is  expected to work.
                    --—John von Neumann


                    Another problem is the inconsistency of the
                    fictitious gravitational force, and how the
                    other forces function; EM, Strong, and Weak,
                    which apparently can't be removed by changes in
                    coordinates systems. AG


                It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of
                small minds. I am merely pointing out the
                inconsistency of the gravitational force with the
                other forces. Maybe gravity is just different. AG

                That's one possibility, e.g entropic gravity.


                        What is gets you is it enforces and
                        explains the equivalence principle.  And of
                        course Einstein's theory also correctly
                        predicted the bending of light,
                        gravitational waves, time dilation and the
                        precession of the perhelion of Mercury.


                    I was referring earlier just to the
                    transformation to the tangent space; what
                    specifically does it buy us; why would we want
                    to execute this particular transformation? AG


                For one thing, you know the acceleration due to
                non-gravitational forces in this frame.


            *IIUC, the tangent space is a vector space which has
            elements with constant t.  So its elements are linear
            combinations of t, x, y, and z. How do you get
            accelerations from such sums (even if t is not
            constant)? AG*
            *
            *

                So you can transform to it, put in the
                accelerations, and transform back.


            *I see no way to put the accelerations into the tangent
            space at any point in spacetime. AG*

            The tangent space is just a patch of Minkowski space. 
            d/t(dx/dt) = acceleration.

            Brent


        *Sorry; I was thinking about QM, where the state of the
        system is a linear combination of component states of the
        vector space representing it. In GR, since there is an
        infinite uncountable set of tangent spaces, how can we be
        sure that our test particle is in one of those subspaces,
        called tangent states? That would be the case, I surmise, if
        the tangent spaces spanned the manifold. I think they do so
        since there's a tangent space at every point in the
        manifold.  AG *


    *The presumed test particle has a history, and each tangent space
    is a proper subset of the manifold. So is there a guarantee that
    an arbitrary test particle will have a history contained in a
    particular tangent space? AG*

    No.  It's guaranteed that at every point on the particles world
    line there is a tangent space.

    Brent


*On a different issue, if you agree with Stenger that time is what is read on a clock, how do you justify labeling all spacetime points with a t component, which is called "time", and overwhelmingly will never be read on any clock? AG*

Justify?  Just like everything in a scientific theory is justified...as von Neumann says, because it works.  The "t" and for that matter the "x y and z" never show up in any measurement, they are just labels for points that are smooth and continuous.

Brent

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