On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:39:11 PM UTC-6, [email protected] wrote:
>
>
>
> On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:10:16 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On 4/16/2019 11:41 AM, [email protected] wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 9:26:59 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On 4/15/2019 7:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6, [email protected] 
>>> wrote: 
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 7:12:17 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 4:37:39 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> He might have been referring to a transformation to a tangent space 
>>>>>>>> where the metric tensor is diagonalized and its derivative at that 
>>>>>>>> point in 
>>>>>>>> spacetime is zero. Does this make any sense? 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Sort of.  
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Yeah, that's what he's doing. He's assuming a given coordinate 
>>>>>>> system and some arbitrary point in a non-empty spacetime. So spacetime 
>>>>>>> has 
>>>>>>> a non zero curvature and the derivative of the metric tensor is 
>>>>>>> generally 
>>>>>>> non-zero at that arbitrary point, however small we assume the region 
>>>>>>> around 
>>>>>>> that point. But applying the EEP, we can transform to the tangent space 
>>>>>>> at 
>>>>>>> that point to diagonalize the metric tensor and have its derivative as 
>>>>>>> zero 
>>>>>>> at that point. Does THIS make sense? AG
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Yep.  That's pretty much the defining characteristic of a Riemannian 
>>>>>>> space.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> But isn't it weird that changing labels on spacetime points by 
>>>>>> transforming coordinates has the result of putting the test particle in 
>>>>>> local free fall, when it wasn't prior to the transformation? AG 
>>>>>>
>>>>>> It doesn't put it in free-fall.  If the particle has EM forces on it, 
>>>>>> it will deviate from the geodesic in the tangent space coordinates.  The 
>>>>>> transformation is just adapting the coordinates to the local free-fall 
>>>>>> which removes gravity as a force...but not other forces.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> In both cases, with and without non-gravitational forces acting on 
>>>>> test particle, I assume the trajectory appears identical to an external 
>>>>> observer, before and after coordinate transformation to the tangent plane 
>>>>> at some point; all that's changed are the labels of spacetime points. If 
>>>>> this is true, it's still hard to see why changing labels can remove the 
>>>>> gravitational forces. And what does this buy us? AG
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> You're looking at it the wrong way around.  There never were any 
>>>>> gravitational forces, just your choice of coordinate system made 
>>>>> fictitious 
>>>>> forces appear; just like when you use a merry-go-round as your reference 
>>>>> frame you get coriolis forces.  
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> If gravity is a fictitious force produced by the choice of coordinate 
>>>> system, in its absence (due to a change in coordinate system) how does GR 
>>>> explain motion? Test particles move on geodesics in the absence of 
>>>> non-gravitational forces, but why do they move at all? AG
>>>>
>>>
>>> Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain it. AG 
>>>
>>>
>>> The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even try to  interpret, 
>>> they mainly make models. By a model is meant a  mathematical construct 
>>> which, with the addition of certain verbal  interpretations, describes 
>>> observed phenomena. The justification of  such a mathematical construct is 
>>> solely and precisely that it is  expected to work.
>>>     --—John von Neumann
>>>
>>>
>>>> Another problem is the inconsistency of the fictitious gravitational 
>>>> force, and how the other forces function; EM, Strong, and Weak, which 
>>>> apparently can't be removed by changes in coordinates systems. AG
>>>>
>>>
>>> It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of small minds. I am merely 
>>> pointing out the inconsistency of the gravitational force with the other 
>>> forces. Maybe gravity is just different. AG 
>>>
>>>
>>> That's one possibility, e.g entropic gravity.
>>>
>>>
>>>>  
>>>>
>>>>> What is gets you is it enforces and explains the equivalence 
>>>>> principle.  And of course Einstein's theory also correctly predicted the 
>>>>> bending of light, gravitational waves, time dilation and the precession 
>>>>> of 
>>>>> the perhelion of Mercury.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I was referring earlier just to the transformation to the tangent 
>>>> space; what specifically does it buy us; why would we want to execute this 
>>>> particular transformation? AG 
>>>>
>>>
>>> For one thing, you know the acceleration due to non-gravitational forces 
>>> in this frame.  
>>>
>>
>> *IIUC, the tangent space is a vector space which has elements with 
>> constant t.  So its elements are linear combinations of t, x, y, and z. How 
>> do you get accelerations from such sums (even if t is not constant)? AG*
>>
>> So you can transform to it, put in the accelerations, and transform back. 
>>>
>>
>> *I see no way to put the accelerations into the tangent space at any 
>> point in spacetime. AG*
>>
>>
>> The tangent space is just a patch of Minkowski space.  d/t(dx/dt) = 
>> acceleration.
>>
>> Brent
>>
>
> *Sorry; I was thinking about QM, where the state of the system is a linear 
> combination of component states of the vector space representing it. In GR, 
> since there is an infinite uncountable set of tangent spaces, how can we be 
> sure that our test particle is in one of those subspaces, called tangent 
> states? That would be the case, I surmise, if the tangent spaces spanned 
> the manifold. I think they do so since there's a tangent space at every 
> point in the manifold.  AG *
>

*The presumed test particle has a history, and each tangent space is a 
proper subset of the manifold. So is there a guarantee that an arbitrary 
test particle will have a history contained in a particular tangent space? 
AG *

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