On 4/16/2019 6:14 PM, agrayson2...@gmail.com wrote:


On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:39:11 PM UTC-6, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



    On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:10:16 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



        On 4/16/2019 11:41 AM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


        On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 9:26:59 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



            On 4/15/2019 7:14 PM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


            On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6,
            agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



                On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM UTC-6,
                Brent wrote:



                    On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:


                    On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 7:12:17 PM
                    UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                        On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM, agrays...@gmail.com
                        wrote:


                        On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 4:37:39 PM
                        UTC-6, Brent wrote:



                            On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM,
                            agrays...@gmail.com wrote:



                                He might have been referring to
                                a transformation to a tangent
                                space where the metric tensor is
                                diagonalized and its derivative
                                at that point in spacetime is
                                zero. Does this make any sense?

                                Sort of.



                            Yeah, that's what he's doing. He's
                            assuming a given coordinate system
                            and some arbitrary point in a
                            non-empty spacetime. So spacetime has
                            a non zero curvature and the
                            derivative of the metric tensor is
                            generally non-zero at that arbitrary
                            point, however small we assume the
                            region around that point. But
                            applying the EEP, we can transform to
                            the tangent space at that point to
                            diagonalize the metric tensor and
                            have its derivative as zero at that
                            point. Does THIS make sense? AG

                            Yep.  That's pretty much the defining
                            characteristic of a Riemannian space.

                            Brent


                        But isn't it weird that changing labels on
                        spacetime points by transforming
                        coordinates has the result of putting the
                        test particle in local free fall, when it
                        wasn't prior to the transformation? AG

                        It doesn't put it in free-fall.  If the
                        particle has EM forces on it, it will
                        deviate from the geodesic in the tangent
                        space coordinates.  The transformation is
                        just adapting the coordinates to the local
                        free-fall which removes gravity as a
                        force...but not other forces.

                        Brent


                    In both cases, with and without
                    non-gravitational forces acting on test
                    particle, I assume the trajectory appears
                    identical to an external observer, before and
                    after coordinate transformation to the tangent
                    plane at some point; all that's changed are the
                    labels of spacetime points. If this is true,
                    it's still hard to see why changing labels can
                    remove the gravitational forces. And what does
                    this buy us? AG

                    You're looking at it the wrong way around. 
                    There never were any gravitational forces, just
                    your choice of coordinate system made fictitious
                    forces appear; just like when you use a
                    merry-go-round as your reference frame you get
                    coriolis forces.


                If gravity is a fictitious force produced by the
                choice of coordinate system, in its absence (due to
                a change in coordinate system) how does GR explain
                motion? Test particles move on geodesics in the
                absence of non-gravitational forces, but why do they
                move at all? AG


            Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain it. AG

            The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even try
            to  interpret, they mainly make models. By a model is
            meant a  mathematical construct which, with the addition
            of certain verbal interpretations, describes observed
            phenomena. The justification of  such a mathematical
            construct is solely and precisely that it is expected to
            work.
                --—John von Neumann


                Another problem is the inconsistency of the
                fictitious gravitational force, and how the other
                forces function; EM, Strong, and Weak, which
                apparently can't be removed by changes in
                coordinates systems. AG


            It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of small
            minds. I am merely pointing out the inconsistency of the
            gravitational force with the other forces. Maybe gravity
            is just different. AG

            That's one possibility, e.g entropic gravity.


                    What is gets you is it enforces and explains the
                    equivalence principle. And of course Einstein's
                    theory also correctly predicted the bending of
                    light, gravitational waves, time dilation and
                    the precession of the perhelion of Mercury.


                I was referring earlier just to the transformation
                to the tangent space; what specifically does it buy
                us; why would we want to execute this particular
                transformation? AG


            For one thing, you know the acceleration due to
            non-gravitational forces in this frame.


        *IIUC, the tangent space is a vector space which has elements
        with constant t.  So its elements are linear combinations of
        t, x, y, and z. How do you get accelerations from such sums
        (even if t is not constant)? AG*
        *
        *

            So you can transform to it, put in the accelerations, and
            transform back.


        *I see no way to put the accelerations into the tangent space
        at any point in spacetime. AG*

        The tangent space is just a patch of Minkowski space.
        d/t(dx/dt) = acceleration.

        Brent


    *Sorry; I was thinking about QM, where the state of the system is
    a linear combination of component states of the vector space
    representing it. In GR, since there is an infinite uncountable set
    of tangent spaces, how can we be sure that our test particle is in
    one of those subspaces, called tangent states? That would be the
    case, I surmise, if the tangent spaces spanned the manifold. I
    think they do so since there's a tangent space at every point in
    the manifold.  AG *


*The presumed test particle has a history, and each tangent space is a proper subset of the manifold. So is there a guarantee that an arbitrary test particle will have a history contained in a particular tangent space? AG*

No.  It's guaranteed that at every point on the particles world line there is a tangent space.

Brent

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