On Wednesday, April 17, 2019 at 1:02:09 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:
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> On 4/17/2019 7:37 AM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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> On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 9:15:40 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
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>> On 4/16/2019 6:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:
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>> On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:39:11 PM UTC-6, [email protected] 
>> wrote: 
>>>
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>>>
>>> On Tuesday, April 16, 2019 at 6:10:16 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 4/16/2019 11:41 AM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 9:26:59 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 4/15/2019 7:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6, [email protected] 
>>>>> wrote: 
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 7:12:17 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 4:37:39 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> He might have been referring to a transformation to a tangent 
>>>>>>>>>> space where the metric tensor is diagonalized and its derivative at 
>>>>>>>>>> that 
>>>>>>>>>> point in spacetime is zero. Does this make any sense? 
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Sort of.  
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Yeah, that's what he's doing. He's assuming a given coordinate 
>>>>>>>>> system and some arbitrary point in a non-empty spacetime. So 
>>>>>>>>> spacetime has 
>>>>>>>>> a non zero curvature and the derivative of the metric tensor is 
>>>>>>>>> generally 
>>>>>>>>> non-zero at that arbitrary point, however small we assume the region 
>>>>>>>>> around 
>>>>>>>>> that point. But applying the EEP, we can transform to the tangent 
>>>>>>>>> space at 
>>>>>>>>> that point to diagonalize the metric tensor and have its derivative 
>>>>>>>>> as zero 
>>>>>>>>> at that point. Does THIS make sense? AG
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Yep.  That's pretty much the defining characteristic of a 
>>>>>>>>> Riemannian space.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> But isn't it weird that changing labels on spacetime points by 
>>>>>>>> transforming coordinates has the result of putting the test particle 
>>>>>>>> in 
>>>>>>>> local free fall, when it wasn't prior to the transformation? AG 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> It doesn't put it in free-fall.  If the particle has EM forces on 
>>>>>>>> it, it will deviate from the geodesic in the tangent space 
>>>>>>>> coordinates.  
>>>>>>>> The transformation is just adapting the coordinates to the local 
>>>>>>>> free-fall 
>>>>>>>> which removes gravity as a force...but not other forces.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> In both cases, with and without non-gravitational forces acting on 
>>>>>>> test particle, I assume the trajectory appears identical to an external 
>>>>>>> observer, before and after coordinate transformation to the tangent 
>>>>>>> plane 
>>>>>>> at some point; all that's changed are the labels of spacetime points. 
>>>>>>> If 
>>>>>>> this is true, it's still hard to see why changing labels can remove the 
>>>>>>> gravitational forces. And what does this buy us? AG
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> You're looking at it the wrong way around.  There never were any 
>>>>>>> gravitational forces, just your choice of coordinate system made 
>>>>>>> fictitious 
>>>>>>> forces appear; just like when you use a merry-go-round as your 
>>>>>>> reference 
>>>>>>> frame you get coriolis forces.  
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> If gravity is a fictitious force produced by the choice of coordinate 
>>>>>> system, in its absence (due to a change in coordinate system) how does 
>>>>>> GR 
>>>>>> explain motion? Test particles move on geodesics in the absence of 
>>>>>> non-gravitational forces, but why do they move at all? AG
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain it. AG 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even try to  
>>>>> interpret, they mainly make models. By a model is meant a  mathematical 
>>>>> construct which, with the addition of certain verbal  interpretations, 
>>>>> describes observed phenomena. The justification of  such a mathematical 
>>>>> construct is solely and precisely that it is  expected to work.
>>>>>     --—John von Neumann
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>> Another problem is the inconsistency of the fictitious gravitational 
>>>>>> force, and how the other forces function; EM, Strong, and Weak, which 
>>>>>> apparently can't be removed by changes in coordinates systems. AG
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of small minds. I am 
>>>>> merely pointing out the inconsistency of the gravitational force with the 
>>>>> other forces. Maybe gravity is just different. AG 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> That's one possibility, e.g entropic gravity.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>>  
>>>>>>
>>>>>>> What is gets you is it enforces and explains the equivalence 
>>>>>>> principle.  And of course Einstein's theory also correctly predicted 
>>>>>>> the 
>>>>>>> bending of light, gravitational waves, time dilation and the precession 
>>>>>>> of 
>>>>>>> the perhelion of Mercury.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I was referring earlier just to the transformation to the tangent 
>>>>>> space; what specifically does it buy us; why would we want to execute 
>>>>>> this 
>>>>>> particular transformation? AG 
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> For one thing, you know the acceleration due to non-gravitational 
>>>>> forces in this frame.  
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> *IIUC, the tangent space is a vector space which has elements with 
>>>> constant t.  So its elements are linear combinations of t, x, y, and z. 
>>>> How 
>>>> do you get accelerations from such sums (even if t is not constant)? AG*
>>>>
>>>> So you can transform to it, put in the accelerations, and transform 
>>>>> back. 
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> *I see no way to put the accelerations into the tangent space at any 
>>>> point in spacetime. AG*
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> The tangent space is just a patch of Minkowski space.  d/t(dx/dt) = 
>>>> acceleration.
>>>>
>>>> Brent
>>>>
>>>
>>> *Sorry; I was thinking about QM, where the state of the system is a 
>>> linear combination of component states of the vector space representing it. 
>>> In GR, since there is an infinite uncountable set of tangent spaces, how 
>>> can we be sure that our test particle is in one of those subspaces, called 
>>> tangent states? That would be the case, I surmise, if the tangent spaces 
>>> spanned the manifold. I think they do so since there's a tangent space at 
>>> every point in the manifold.  AG *
>>>
>>
>> *The presumed test particle has a history, and each tangent space is a 
>> proper subset of the manifold. So is there a guarantee that an arbitrary 
>> test particle will have a history contained in a particular tangent space? 
>> AG*
>>
>>
>> No.  It's guaranteed that at every point on the particles world line 
>> there is a tangent space.
>>
>> Brent
>>
>
> *On a different issue, if you agree with Stenger that time is what is read 
> on a clock, how do you justify labeling all spacetime points with a t 
> component, which is called "time", and overwhelmingly will never be read on 
> any clock? AG*
>
>
> Justify?  Just like everything in a scientific theory is justified...as 
> von Neumann says, because it works.  The "t" and for that matter the "x y 
> and z" never show up in any measurement, they are just labels for points 
> that are smooth and continuous.
>
> Brent
>

*I don't object to the label, t, but once you call it "time" you run into 
the inconsistency that time in relativity is what observers read (on a 
clock). So, from my POV, it's better to regard it as a placeholder for a 
test particle that has that event in its history. AG  *

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