On Sat, Jun 26, 2021, 8:53 PM 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List <
[email protected]> wrote:

>
>
> On 6/26/2021 4:41 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>
>
>
> On Saturday, June 26, 2021 at 11:36:47 PM UTC+2 Brent wrote:
>
>>
>> But presumably the *laws *are stable.  Why?  Because that's the way we
>> want them.  If they weren't stable (or even time invariant) we wouldn't
>> call them laws of physics.  They'd be initial conditions or historical
>> accidents.
>>
>
> But why do stable laws exist in our universe and what is the guarantee
> that they will continue to exist?
>
>
> Notice that they don't exist in the sense you mean.  Newton's laws aren't
> around anymore.  Determinism is gone.  Space and time aren't separate.  So
> why do you think the laws are stable?  Because when we invent/discover a
> new law we necessarily demand that it also apply in all of the past.  We
> ignore the fact that we thought Newton's laws were stable before 1905.
>
> So there's no guarantee they will continue without change, but they will
> apply to the past.  How do we know?  We don't, but it's supported by
> induction.  Induction is a self-supporting form of inference.  If there is
> any effective form of empirical inference, then induction will do as well.
>

We could still ask: why does empiricism tend to work here? Which I think is
the crux if Tomas's question.

Jason



> Brent
>
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