--- In [email protected], [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
>
>  
> In a message dated 10/25/06 7:43:36 P.M. Central Daylight Time,  
> [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
> 
> There  are at least two problems with this interpretation. First, 
> the normal  
> > Hebrew word for miscarry is not used in this passage (cf. Gen.  
> 31:38; Exod. 
> > 23:26; Job 2:10; Hos. 9:14). Most commentators now  believe that 
the 
> action 
> > described in verse 22 is a premature  birth not an accidental 
> miscarriage. 
> > Second, even if the verses  do describe a miscarriage, the 
passage 
> cannot be used to 
> > justify  abortion. The injury was accidental, not intentional (as 
> abortion 
> >  would be). Also, the action was a criminal offense and 
punishable 
> by  law.
> 
> Unless, of course, the issue of concern was the
> injury to the  woman, not to the fetus, in which
> case the difference between the terms is  irrelevant.
> 
> And it could just as easily apply to both mother and child as it is 
> heard before a judge.

Sure, if you want to ignore what it actually says,
anybody could apply it to both mother and fetus.

As I pointed out--and you ignored--the text itself
(at least in translation) strongly indicates that
it is assumed that the fetus doesn't survive the
miscarriage; the concern is all for the woman.

The fetus isn't even mentioned.  The man who is owed
reparations is referred to as the woman's husband,
not the father of the child.  The list of injuries
is unlikely to apply to a miscarried fetus, in
particular because a fetus has no teeth ("tooth for
tooth").  Any of them would be likely to be injuries
to the woman, however, if she had gotten caught in
the middle of a fight between two men.

Again, there is *no* indication that the penalties
mentioned have anything to do with injury to the
fetus, and quite a few indications that they have
to do with injuries to the woman.





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