At 3/14/2006 12:44 PM, Scott Amort wrote:
>The arrangement would become the property of the composer.
>
>Is this a usual requirement? Does this mean that I am essentially
>signing away any claim to this arrangement (i.e. the composer will not
>need to credit me, nor obtain my permission to use, alter or perform
>it)? It seems to me that the composer is looking for someone else to do
>his work for him and still retain ownership, but maybe I'm just not
>aware of how this sort of thing usually works. He is offering union rates.
>
>Any advice? Thanks very much.
Compare this to computer programming.
If you are employed by someone to write original computer programs, you
have to sign a contract that your work is owned by the employer.
It seems to me that being hired to arrange something would be the same
situation.
Phil Daley < AutoDesk >
http://www.conknet.com/~p_daley
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