My probability is failing me. Could someone answer this?
I have a very biased coin that comes up 2/3 heads, 1/3 tails. I want
to do an experiment of n coin flips.
The probability that all are heads is (2/3)^n, right?
What I'm interested is the related question: Lets suppose I repeat
the experiment t times. How likely am I to get all heads once in a
series of t sets of n flips?
-- Owen
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