At least once, now that I think about it.

    -- Owen


On May 4, 2010, at 4:58 PM, [email protected] wrote:

On 4 May 2010 at 16:18, Owen Densmore wrote:

My probability is failing me.  Could someone answer this?

I have a very biased coin that comes up 2/3 heads, 1/3 tails.  I want
to do an experiment of n coin flips.

The probability that all are heads is (2/3)^n, right?

What I'm interested is the related question:  Lets suppose I repeat
the experiment t times.  How likely am I to get all heads once in a
series of t sets of n flips?

Exactly once, or at least once?

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lectures, archives, unsubscribe, maps at http://www.friam.org

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