On 4 May 2010 at 16:18, Owen Densmore wrote: > My probability is failing me. Could someone answer this? > > I have a very biased coin that comes up 2/3 heads, 1/3 tails. I want > to do an experiment of n coin flips. > > The probability that all are heads is (2/3)^n, right? > > What I'm interested is the related question: Lets suppose I repeat > the experiment t times. How likely am I to get all heads once in a > series of t sets of n flips? Exactly once, or at least once?
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