Owen, Yes, you are right, it is (2/3)^n, call it p.
Then the probability of exactly 1 such happening in t repetitions of the n-flip experiment is tp(1-p)^(t-1) (that's a binomial probability), or if you mean at least 1 happening, the probability is 1-(1-p)^t (i.e., 1 - prob of no such happenings). George On Tue, May 4, 2010 at 4:18 PM, Owen Densmore <[email protected]> wrote: > My probability is failing me. Could someone answer this? > > I have a very biased coin that comes up 2/3 heads, 1/3 tails. I want to do > an experiment of n coin flips. > > The probability that all are heads is (2/3)^n, right? > > What I'm interested is the related question: Lets suppose I repeat the > experiment t times. How likely am I to get all heads once in a series of t > sets of n flips? > > -- Owen > > > > ============================================================ > FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv > Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College > lectures, archives, unsubscribe, maps at http://www.friam.org > -- George Duncan georgeduncanart.com represented by Artistas de Santa Fe www.artistasdesantafe.com (505) 983-6895 Life must be understood backwards; but... it must be lived forward. Soren Kierkegaard
============================================================ FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College lectures, archives, unsubscribe, maps at http://www.friam.org
