For whatever reason, Jochen’s posts don’t forward to me, so I only see them in the later context of somebody else’s replies. In this case EricC’s, on Nick’s.
I will clip to the focal sentence (acknowledging all that was clipped): >> > Claude was not happy about the theorem proofs that Gemini created. >> > And Jon also mentioned that they are not waterproof. So I asked Claude >> > and Gemini if they could write a new proof. They could. I asked them >> > if we could use gauge theory to explain subjective experience - gauge >> > invariance to describe objectivity, and symmetry breaking for >> > subjectivity. I think there was a time when I had enthusiasm for using these mathematical-physics metaphors. Something has apparently happened. I probably said, a while ago (so if you feel like it, forgive the repetition), that since I don’t know what philosophers mean by objective and subjective, I could take the more defensive posture of being a linguistic semanticist, which to me seems like a more pragmatist standing-point anyway, leaving many further mistakes for the future rather than making them all at once. I could take “objective” and “subjective” to be two speech registers, in an ordinary lexical/grammatical-semantics sense. A sentence in an “objective” register is one that I can parse to a meaning (in the everyday sense; not in some formal logic that everyday speech doesn’t use and that would need to be invented) without needing as input who said it. A sentence in a “subjective” register is one that cannot be parsed to a meaning without reference to some speaker (in whatever representation; maybe more or less explicit), which must thus be supplied. _Why_ we use those registers, why we have been handed them down from past speakers innumerable, and how our experienced lives reward or discourage the adoption of such registers, looks to me like a question that can to some degree (as good a degree as anything in semantics) be separated or factored from the classification of the locutions. Eric
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