> The IP that sends the spam is guilty of sending spam, period, as an > accomplice.
No, as the IP sending the spam is providing a requested service to the AOL customer in forwarding their mail to them.
sending spam is sending spam. SMTP protocol can't determine what what "requested service" or "intent" is.
If the sending MTA, yours, didn't block it as spam, then another MTA could and will, which is what AOL did.
> If an network operator's MTA relays spam to my MX that > originated from one > of the network operator's subscriber IP's and PCs, my MX is > being spammed > by the network operator's MTA.
If my mail client sent an email to my MTA that was destined for your MX, that was a geniune email for you, is your MX being spammed?
"genuine" is legit. spam is spam. Which do you think we are discussing? and which do you think AOL is blocking, no matter what the SMTP relay circuit was.
If an IP is sourcing spam, it's guilty, and has no grounds for complaining when another MX blocks it as spam.
Len
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