Any explanations? Or am I so ignorant that I am not worth a serious answer? F
This question cannot be resolved, in large part because it is based on at least 4 fallacies: 1. Lute is a descendant of Oud. 2. Oud is Arabic. 3. Our early science is owed to Arabs. 4. Diatonic system is an exclusively Occidental thing. RT From: "Franz Mechsner" <[email protected]> > But I would mainly like to ask a question to the community which I have > not been able to resolve yet. It is often stressed that the lute is a > descendant of the Arabian oud, thus it comes from the Arabian culture > like much of our early science etc. As I have learned, flamenco has > heavily been influenced by the Arabs too. However, much of the > characteristics of Arabian music like diverse modi with 1/4 etc. > intervals seems not to have been of much influence on early and > later occidental music. Might the reason be that the diatonic systems > were already so strong? I have actually no idea, only that question, > which one might expand to the question how occidental music, and in > particular lute music, was and was not influenced by oriental music, > and why. > > Franz > > -- > > > To get on or off this list see list information at > [1]http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html > -- References 1. http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
