One explanation is that in Early Islam music was strictly proscribed, and as
Arabs went on their expansion their moneyed classes (i.e. those who could
afford to ignore proscriptions) simply began to rely on musical cultures of
conquered peoples.
Various lutes were played for millenia in the Mediterranean basin long
before Arabs spilled out of Hedjaz.
RT
----- Original Message -----
From: "Franz Mechsner" <[email protected]>
To: "Roman Turovsky" <[email protected]>; "Franz Mechsner"
<[email protected]>; "Lute list" <[email protected]>
Sent: Saturday, November 21, 2009 1:00 PM
Subject: [LUTE] Re: Arabian past
Any explanations? Or am I so ignorant that I am not worth a serious
answer?
F
This question cannot be resolved, in large part because it is based on
at
least 4 fallacies:
1. Lute is a descendant of Oud.
2. Oud is Arabic.
3. Our early science is owed to Arabs.
4. Diatonic system is an exclusively Occidental thing.
RT
From: "Franz Mechsner" <[email protected]>
> But I would mainly like to ask a question to the community which I
have
> not been able to resolve yet. It is often stressed that the lute is
a
> descendant of the Arabian oud, thus it comes from the Arabian
culture
> like much of our early science etc. As I have learned, flamenco has
> heavily been influenced by the Arabs too. However, much of the
> characteristics of Arabian music like diverse modi with 1/4 etc.
> intervals seems not to have been of much influence on early and
> later occidental music. Might the reason be that the diatonic
systems
> were already so strong? I have actually no idea, only that
question,
> which one might expand to the question how occidental music, and in
> particular lute music, was and was not influenced by oriental
music,
> and why.
>
> Franz
>
> --
>
>
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--
References
1. http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
