Hi Daniel,

   I am sorry that you felt addressed by my not so polite remark - it was
   actually a (too) quick reaction to Roman's answer to my original
   question. I felt somewhat mistreated by simply getting the message that
   all my assumptions on which the question were fallacious, full stopp -
   with no further explanations. That style felt like a slap in the face
   instead of an answer, telling me mainly how ignorant I am (in infinite
   contrast to him) instead of giving me the chance to learn better.

   Maybe I misunderstood his intention. Actually I would very much like to
   understand his very interesting statements better and to judge them. I
   am an amateur, and having not all the time in the world, I always hope
   that experts might be willing and able to give me some directions, be
   it in explanations be it in hints what to read best to get an idea what
   is discussed and how to weigh the arguments. (I myself am a scientist,
   and I often write in popular magazines, give seminars for a general
   audience etc. to support that kind of non-expert education which is -
   among other things - important for a democratic and broad
   culture). Recently I was fascinated by early music, and the lute in
   connection, and would like to understand better how our occidental
   idiom was formed as well as learn about the history of the lute... I
   read this and that so far, with serious interest but, unfortunately,
   limited time. So hints are more than welcome.

   Thanks and best
   Franz



   ------------------------------------
   Dr. Franz Mechsner
   Hanse Institute for Advanced Study
   Lehmkuhlenbusch 4
   D-27753 Delmenhorst/Bremen
   GERMANY

   E-mail: [1][email protected]
   Phone: +49 (0)4221 9160-215
   Fax: +49 (0)4221 9160-179
     __________________________________________________________________

   Von: [email protected] im Auftrag von Daniel Winheld
   Gesendet: So 22.11.2009 06:26
   An: lute
   Betreff: [LUTE] Re: Arabian past

   >Any explanations? Or am I so ignorant that I am not worth a serious
   answer?
   Franz, you are perfectly worthy- but this worthless correspondent was
   at work today and did not get home until after 9:00 PM, PST. As to
   the question, firstly we have to know what Arab music was like at the
   time the Oud passed into European hands. We cannot assume that it was
   anything like modern Arab music (As Roman pointed out, the oud had
   frets way back then) and for that matter we don't even know enough
   about EUROPEAN music at that time. Lots of
   anthropology/musicology/organology cross-disciplinary matters for
   discussion here. By the way, the lute's ancestry has been traced to
   pre-Islamic Pakistan; with lutes first going East to China in the 7th
   Century AD (Pipa) and then Japan (Biwa)- so the Islamic transmission
   is but one step in a multifaceted Global migration. No one, or no
   culture, can claim exclusive "ownership". This is just basic
   groundwork, of course. Your specific musical questions will
   eventually be answered by the professional lutenists and academic
   scholars who make this list so rewarding, and worthwhile. Give them a
   little time, and I guarantee that it will be discussed to death and
   beyond- at least I hope so, and look forward to it.
   Dan
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References

   1. mailto:[email protected]
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