Martin
        Might octaves have occasionally been played independently of
   basses (for these cases), as appears to have happened with Baroque
   musicians. I imagine, probably not because of the tonal break it would
   have created, and perhaps, because Baroque musicians may have used
   thicker higher or equal tension octaves than Renaissance players may
   have done?
   So, instead of that they may have emphasized the octave, is that the
   idea?
   Regards
   Anthony
     __________________________________________________________________

   De : Martin Shepherd <[email protected]>
   A : Leonard Williams <[email protected]>
   Cc : Lute List <[email protected]>
   Envoye le : Lundi 28 Novembre 2011 13h04
   Objet : [LUTE] Re: Le Roy Dentice and Octave stringing
   I agree, Leonard.  When confronted with this sort of thing (in
   Attaignant, Dalza, etc.):
   ________a_c________________
   ____c_d______________a_c___
   _________________c_d_______
   __a_______a________________
   _______________a_______a___
   ___________________________
   or more spectacularly in Spinacino:
   ________________________
   ___________________|____
   ___c_e_f_e_f_e_c_e_|____
   ___________________|____
   ___________________|_c__
   ___________________|____
   I have usually advised pupils to play the "missing" note if they don't
   have an octave string,
   or make sure the octave is clearly heard if they do.
   Martin
   On 28/11/2011 01:55, Leonard Williams wrote:
   > A rank amateur observation on octave s for the fifth course:
   >
   >          I play mainly 16th c. music on my 8-course lute.  I tried
   octave
   > stringing on 5, because I saw/heard situations where it just seemed
   right.
   > However, I didn't like the sound of it on my instrument--could never
   get
   > used to it;  so, back to unisons.  However, playing some earlier
   Italian
   > pieces (like Capirola), I found that those places that seemed to want
   the
   > octave sounded fine (to my ear) if I worked in the octave on a
   different
   > course:  eg, an open 5 (c) jumping to an open 3 (d') seemed to
   benefit by
   > playing d fret on 3 (c') along with the open 5.  Not, I suppose, as
   subtle
   > as an octave string, but it seems to work.
   >          Assuming my description is comprehensible--is this perhaps a
   > legitimate way to deal with that octave stringing business?
   >
   > Thanks and regards,
   > Leonard Williams
   >
   >
   >
   >
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