Chris 4 Feb. you wrote (to Jorge):
> I'm not yet sure that this is my position, but I'm leaning in that > direction at the moment. But in the since that a MOQ Level can only be > called a "Level" once it manifests itself clearly, then I would > understand Pirsigs (and Bodvars) argument that it would not be right to > talk about a intellectual level before the Greeks. But on the other > hand, after the SOM had emerged in ancient Greece there was a pretty > clear regression of the intellectual level and a big forward for the > social level that lasted until the enlightenment. During the time > between the intellectual level were around, I think we would all agree > with this, but it was fighting hard to free itself from an advancing, > strong social level. As I see it. If this is a valid way of seeing it, > could not this have been the case earlier than the Greeks? I am writing on an arm-length post regarding your "..what level ancient people's thoughts belong to" issue, but this here about the intellectual level's position through Medieval time's return of Social value is most interesting. You are right, it WAS a regression, yet a progression in the sense that Christendom - that had been a mere offshoot of Judaism where there's no SOM - with the Greek influence (Aristotle becoming a Church Father) got the soul/body distinction as a dogma. To this day there is unease about this issue and some sects insist on the old corporeal resurrection - nothing about saving of soul - the "Jehovah's Witness" for instance. OK I'm straying, my point is that Intellect co-existed with Society during Medieval times, it even continued its undermining of social value. The same is going on an even bigger - global - scale to-day. IMO Bo Moq_Discuss mailing list Listinfo, Unsubscribing etc. http://lists.moqtalk.org/listinfo.cgi/moq_discuss-moqtalk.org Archives: http://lists.moqtalk.org/pipermail/moq_discuss-moqtalk.org/ http://moq.org.uk/pipermail/moq_discuss_archive/
