Ham, (and DM) (and Matt ?)
Ham you also said ... of the "source" question ....
"Only a metaphysical theory can answer that question."

Agreed. "Only", notice, in your own words. And such a metaphysics will
always therefore be a THEORY, unconfirmable emprically. My point, the
non-metaphysicians point, is therefore that energy spent debating what
that metaphysics is, is breath wasted.

A more useful pastime is to debate how to USE that metaphysics (in
reality), not forgetting that the boundaries of what is know will
always be evolving, and the metaphyics (theory) contingent, even
though treated as fundamental "for practical purposes".

Ian

On 3/3/08, ian glendinning <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Ham, and DM,
>
> Ham said
> > Humans can imagine lots of things, but imagination has no claim on logic,
> > and conjuring up multi-universes violates Occam's razor without resolving
> > the problem of creation.
>
> (1) Reality has no monoply on logic either.
> And
> (2) Multiverses do not "violate" Occam.
> God does not violate Occam any less.
> (Occam is a rule of thumb, not a fundamental "law" anyway.)
>
> "first cause" (creation, if you prefer) is an unresolved metaphysical
> loophole everywhere. I don't find that a surprising issue. My
> suspicion is there probably always will be this "hole" in any emprical
> (experience = reality) sense. Even a near-perferct metaphysics, would
> be contingent at this point
>
> Original God-like metaphors are as good as any, even for an atheist,
> and as David says elsewhere in this thread - the teleological /
> causation / anthropic principles are the current debating ground for
> this. (I'm no fan of multiverses, or even "inflationary" cosmology
> either BTW.)
>
> To my mind, the core problem, is that in order to "differentiate" some
> (any) "significant difference" first has to exist.
>
> Ian
>
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