Hello everyone

>From: "Jonathan B. Marder" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Subject: Re: MD True Libertarians Please Stand Up
>Date: Tue, 12 Jun 2001 18:33:25 +0300
>
>Hi Libertarians,
>
>Thanks to those who explained that the "right to bear arms" guaranteed by 
>the
>U.S. Constitution is supposed to allow the individual to defend himself
>against the Government.
>
>May I ask a few simple questions, because I may have understood something:
>
>1. Does the US Constitution allow individuals to actually USE arms in 
>opposing
>the Government?

Hi Jonathan

The first ten Amendments to our US Constitution were ratified in 1791 and 
came to be known as our Bill of Rights. Amendment II:

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, 
the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

Your question is a difficult one and open to interpretation even 200 years 
after ratification. In 1999 a Florida judge ruled that Amendment II can 
indeed be construed to include the right of individuals to bear arms and not 
only a collective "people." The term "militia" seems dated by conventional 
standards of today but I think that is the key to Amendment II (Mark Twain 
made light of his escapades in a militia organized prior to the outbreak of 
the Civil War). The founding fathers invisioned a participatory state based 
on the intermingled values of two seemingly opposed ideals, security and 
freedom (European vs Native American) or put another way, static quality and 
Dynamic Quality. Both are needed and two hundred years ago the founding 
fathers must have felt the militia best represented both qualities. That is 
simply not true any longer due to the complexity of our nation.

So the question quite naturally arises: why should ordinary citizens of 
today continue to have the right to belong to a "well-regulated militia" and 
"to keep and bear arms"? The answer goes straight to the heart of every 
right we possess. It is better to be free.

>
>2. How does US law view an individual or organization that advocates use of
>arms to oppose the Goverment?

We can look at this question as more evidence of the Dynamic/static nature 
of what the founding fathers envisioned. By definition the Constitution 
implies a static framework of government but built into it is a Dynamic 
aspect that defies explanation. Robert Pirsig mentioned John Brown, who was 
hanged for treason, and the ideals that he believed in but it would seem to 
me the MOQ would advocate non-violent means of opposing the Government if 
freedom becomes usurped.

>
>3. Bonus question: What's the definition of sedition?

I am not sure how this question applies...

Thank you

Dan
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