Perhaps I am misreading your post, John, but it seems to me an argument over 
semantics. You seem to reject the term 'pansemiosis' - and I'm not sure why- 
other than that you understand the term to mean that 'the universe is NOT 
composed exclusively of signs"..and I don't understand how you come to that 
conclusion.

Yes - a physiosemiosic dimension; a biosemiosic dimension...

And I'm not sure what you mean by 'semiosis is not the only process thus 
present' in the physical universe. I can understand your objection to 
pansemiotics vs biosemiotics, IF the former is understood as so universal that 
it includes biosemiotics anyway.

Edwina
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Deely, John N. 
  To: Frederik Stjernfelt ; [email protected] ; Peirce List 
  Sent: Thursday, September 04, 2014 6:32 PM
  Subject: [biosemiotics:6644] Re: Natural Propositions: "pansemiotics" (no)


  In CP 5.488 Peirce makes a crucial distinction: "all this universe is 
perfused with signs, if it is not composed exclusively of signs". Only the 
latter idea - that the universe consists exclusively of signs - is properly 
termed "pansemiotics".  The former idea - that the universe is perfused with 
signs - implies Peirce's thesis that signs are not restricted to the living 
world in the sense that semiosis is (not the whole of but) at work already in 
the preliving development of the universe. IF that is the case, we need to 
distinguish between biosemiosis and physiosemiosis under the general notion of 
"semiosis".

                  Given the history of the modifier "pan-" in the history of 
philosophy, with its predominantly negative connotations or overtones, I think 
that it does a disservice to the development of semiotics to adopt (or try to 
adopt) positively the term "pansemiotics". Actually, Frederik and I had an 
extensive discussion around this point in "Let us not lose sight of the forest 
for the trees ...", Cybernetics & Human Knowing 13.3-4 (2006), 161-193, "Let us 
not lose sight of the forest for the trees ...", a rsponse to Stjernfelt's "Let 
us not get too far ahead of the story ..." in  Cybernetics & Human Knowing 13.1 
(2006), 86-103.

                  The universe is not composed exclusively of signs: that is 
what the name "pansemiotics" preconsciously, as it were, conveys. The extent to 
which the universe (of things & objects) is "perfused" with signs is a 
different question. So, since "semiotics" is the knowledge acquired by studying 
the action of signs or "semiosis", the extent of semiotic studies is as wide 
(or "extensive") as is the process of semiosis. If semiosis is involved already 
in the evolution of the lifeless universe developing in the direction of life, 
then, just as biosemiotics studies semiosis as it is at work (or play!) in the 
world of living things, "biosemiosis", so there will be a "physiosemiotic 
dimension" to semiotics (just as there is a "biosemiotic dimension") as it is 
at work & play in the physical universe prior to and (later) surrounding life, 
"physiosemiosis".

                  If there is any physiosemiosis, that is as much a part of 
semiotics as biosemiosis is. It is a question of the range or extent of the 
action of signs in the physical realm of things whether living or not. Per se, 
the question of physiosemiosis, thus, is "the final frontier" (to borrow an 
expression from StarTrek) of semiotic investigation. Per se, this "final 
frontier" question has NOTHING to do with so-called, or mis-called, 
"pansemiotics". Semiosis may be a process present throughout the physical 
universe, living or not; but semiosis is NOT the only process thus present 
(which is what the name "pansemiosis" or "pansemiotics" implies).

                  The question of physiosemiosis is a question of to what 
extent is the action of signs simply co-terminous with the realm of living 
things. (to perhaps put it in Frederik's framework: are there natural dicisigns 
beyond the frontiers of life?) The question properly phrased cannot be, as 
Frederik below suggests, properly "rephrased as pansemiotics versus 
biosemiotics".

   

   

  From: Frederik Stjernfelt [mailto:[email protected]] 
  Sent: Wednesday, September 03, 2014 15:48
  To: [email protected]; Peirce List
  Subject: [PEIRCE-L] Re: [biosemiotics:6624] Natural Propositions

   

  Dear Gary, Edwina, list 

   

  This is an recurrent discussion in P scholarship. It may be rephrased as 
pansemiotics versus biosemiotics, or it may be expressed as the claim that all 
true triadic relations are signs vs. the claim that signs only comprise a 
subset of triadic relations. Both tendencies are in Peirce so the isssue can 
not be resolved by Peirce scholarship. 

  Personally, I tend to side with the latter of the two schools, based on the 
observation that the science of physics does not need semiotics in the 
description of its subject matter (only in its theory of science) while 
biology, on all levels, involves spontaneous semiotic concepts, from 
biochemistry to ecology and ethology you'll find "genetic code", "Information", 
"signals", "cues" etc. which presumably form part of the subject matter of 
biology. For that reason, I think pre-biological nature could be seen as a sort 
of semiotic zero-case. Adding semiotic concepts to your description of physical 
events can be done, but it does not really add to our understanding of them - 
while in our understanding of biological events, semiotic concepts are 
always-already there.  

  I do not discuss this deeply in "Natural Propositons" but of course it forms 
the prerequisite to my discussing biological sign processes but not purely 
physical events conceived as semiotics. 

  But I think deciding pro or con pansemiotics is no prerequisite for following 
the book's argument.

   

  Best

  F

   

  Den 03/09/2014 kl. 16.08 skrev Gary Fuhrman <[email protected]>:





  Jon, Edwina, lists,

  Yes, I read McCullough a few decades ago and learned a lot from him, long
  before I started reading Peirce). But I think part of the problem here is
  that for Peirce, and I think for his contemporaries, "physiology" is closer
  to "phenomenology" than it is to "physics". It is the study of forms and
  sturctures generally, not only of physical forms and biological structures.
  For instance, in his classification of sciences where he's discussing
  phenomenology, esthetics and ethics, he writes:
  "The true principal purpose of these sciences is the Classification of
  possible forms. But this must be founded on a study of the Physiology of
  those forms, their general elements, parts, and mode of action. Thereupon
  should follow the Classificatory part, including the general discussion of
  what is good and what bad; and this should be followed up by a study of the
  principles that govern the production of such forms" (EP2:272).

  The same applies to the usage of "physiology" in the 1883 quote I posted
  today. Peirce is talking about the physiology of *logic* (i.e. of semiosis
  as he would put it later on), not primarily about biology or physics or
  psychology. That excerpt is about the connection of syllogistic logic with
  primitive forms of *cognition*, but Edwina reads it pansemiotically as
  applying to physical "organization of matter" all the way down to the
  molecular (maybe the atomic?) level, and thus doesn't distinguish between
  cognitive and physical processes. But for purposes of NP, we don't need to
  engage in the endless debate over pansemiotics; primitive cognition is as
  far down as we need to go in theorizing its continuity with reasoning. 

  gary f.

   
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