> On Dec 13, 2016, at 12:43 PM, Thomas903 <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> There are a lot of scientists, so I won't claim that all agree with a single 
> definition. But when I see the term "law" being used by scientists (e.g., 
> Kepler's Law), it is normally used to describe a physical-empirical 
> regularity.  It is assumed that something causes/generates the regularity, 
> and that cause can (eventually) be formalized in a theory -- but the law 
> itself is a phenomenological description of reality. An empirical habit.

That’s an important point. Scientists typically don’t take philosophy classes. 
When they do they’re often introductory or broad classes. (Early modernism, 
Plato, Aristotle, etc.) It’s pretty rare that people have studied philosophy of 
science. So how the typical scientist understands ‘laws’ or other such terms 
tends to be picked up from the linguistic usage in their textbooks and peers. 
In my experience this often means a somewhat incoherent use but that the common 
facet is fixed regularities. As you note above.

To the other points I think scientists are even more inconsistent. I just don’t 
see in regular language use a very distinct difference in use between 
hypothesis and theory. I’d even say the distinction between law and theory is 
pretty loose at times too. (Undoubtedly due to too much indirect influence from 
Popper loosely understood) The way these often are used is merely a continuum 
of guesses with different words used for different degrees of strength. 

Note I’m not saying this is how they should be used. However as I said 
scientists often ignore philosophy too much. Further the use seems to shift 
over time as broader philosophical fads affect indirectly how scientists speak. 
While I’m not sure I would suspect if we looked at pre-positivist and 
pre-Popperian language by lay scientists as quite different from the language 
in the 60’s and 70’s.

Having said all that though I agree with how John uses the terms and wish 
scientists more broadly would stick to such uses.
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