Jon, list,

Jon, I’m well aware that your “understanding is that what a Sign signifies are 
certain qualities/characters of its Dynamic Object, which taken together 
constitute its Immediate Object.” But I’m only interested in continuing this 
dialogue if we can base it on Peirce’s definition of the Immediate Object — not 
yours. The problem I have with yours is that you take it as definitive of the 
IO that “every sign” has one — including rhematic signs. But I have yet to see 
any text where Peirce refers explicitly to the immediate object of any rhematic 
sign. As Bellucci says (even in the paragraph you quoted from him!) only 
dicisigns are said by Peirce to have immediate objects, because a dicisign has 
two objects by definition.

Please review the Commens Dictionary entry for the IO 
(http://www.commens.org/dictionary/term/immediate-object). (That was your 
serve, as it were, but I’m now returning it to your court.) Peirce’s 
definitions of the IO are stated there quite clearly, and I don’t think I need 
to repeat them again. But you’ve apparently paid attention only to the quotes 
in that entry that you can interpret as confirmations of your prior 
“understanding.” I think that’s a problem when your prior understanding becomes 
the basis of your definition.

Originally you said that “Peirce explicitly stated on multiple occasions that 
every Sign has an Immediate Object.” Now you admit that the “multiple 
occasions” are down to two; and those two are both excerpted from manuscript 
sources which, to my knowledge, have not been published. I haven’t seen those 
manuscripts (have you?) to ascertain what context those quotes were taken out 
of. I think this matters, because Peirce’s usage of the term “sign” — and thus 
of “every sign” — varies with the context in which he’s using it.

One obvious case in point is Kaina Stoicheia (KS). For instance, those “signs” 
which are designated as “sinsigns” in the 1903 Syllabus (and elsewhere) are 
excluded from the universe of “signs” in KS, by Peirce’s statement that “In the 
first place, a sign is not a real thing” (EP2:303). Also, KS declares itself to 
be a “scholium” (EP2:303); and “It is the Proposition which forms the main 
subject of this whole scholium” (EP2:311). In this scholium, Peirce often uses 
the word “sign” where the reference is to propositions, as we can see from the 
examples and the analysis he gives of these “signs.” For example (EP2:303-4):

[[ The sentence “Roxana was the queen of Alexander” is a sign of Roxana and of 
Alexander, and though there is a grammatical emphasis on the former, logically 
the name “Alexander” is as much a subject as is the name “Roxana”; and the real 
persons Roxana and Alexander are real objects of the sign. Every sign that is 
sufficiently complete refers to sundry real objects. ]]

In the context of KS, it’s clear that Peirce has propositional signs in mind in 
the sentence which begins “Every sign.” For all we know, the same may be true 
of his usage of “every sign” in the two quotes in the Commens entry where that 
phrase occurs. After all, Peirce was a logician, and logicians give most of 
their attention to propositions and arguments; Peirce’s “speculative grammar” 
is a branch of logic as semiotic, and his taxonomy (including the distinction 
between dynamic and immediate objects) is part of his speculative grammar. He 
quite naturally and often uses the terms “sign” and “symbol” as shorthand for 
the kind of sign that logicians are traditionally concerned with. That’s one 
reason why it’s unwise to ignore the context in which Peirce uses the word 
“sign” — and why there is no need to cite an “occasion where Peirce stated 
explicitly that only propositions have IOs.” It’s quite enough to see that 
everything Peirce does say about IOs is in a context of which the subject is 
propositions (or other dicisigns). You’re welcome to give a counter-example to 
that if you can.

Two of Peirce’s important innovations in logic are (1) his division of objects 
into dynamic and immediate (1904), and (2) his 1903 recasting of the 
term/proposition/argument trichotomy, which was a division of symbols, into the 
rheme/dicisign/argument trichotomy, where neither rhemes nor dicisigns are 
necessarily symbols. These two innovations are not unrelated. For one thing, 
they allow Peirce (and Stjernfelt and Bellucci) to say that not only 
propositions but dicisigns or “quasi-propositions” must have immediate objects, 
because the doubleness of object is built into the definition of the dicisign 
as well as the proposition. 

Another connection becomes apparent when we consider that Peirce’s division of 
signs according to their immediate objects produces the trichotomy 
vague/actual/general. This appears in the Logic Notebook for July 7, 1905: “In 
its relation to its Immediate Object, it is Vagosign if it represents that 
Obj[ect) as possible, [it is] Actisign [if it represents that Object as] 
existent, [it is] General [if it represents that Object as] law” (R 339 DDR 
247r). But this is prefigured in KS, where Peirce says (EP2:311) that “the 
distinctions of vague and distinct, general and individual are propositional 
distinctions.” Now, in KS Peirce ignores the dynamic/immediate object 
distinction (as well as the the proposition/dicisign distinction); but taking 
that into account, he is saying that the distinctions pertaining to the sign’s 
relation to its immediate object “are propositional distinctions.” That’s 
enough for me, and since you are quite familiar with KS, I don’t see why it 
wouldn’t be enough for you.

All of the above is to question your claim that “every sign,” presumably 
including at least the ten types defined in the Syllabus (if not the notorious 
66), “has an immediate object.” If you’re going to stick to that claim, and 
base your definition of the IO on it, then I’m not interested in prolonging 
discussion on the matter. I’d prefer to focus on what Peirce actually says 
about immediate objects, in the contexts where he says these things, rather 
than argue for or against an abstract schema of sign taxonomy. Just my personal 
preference, of course. 

Gary f.

 

From: Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> 
Sent: 21-Jun-18 23:46
To: Peirce-L <[email protected]>
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Direct experience and immediate object

 

Gary F., List:

GF:  Are you denying that indicating is an indexical function?

I am not convinced that Peirce intended "indicated" in that particular context 
to be strictly understood as entailing indexical function, since Qualities 
cannot indicate in that sense; after all, a Qualisign cannot be an Index.  Just 
a couple of days later, he instead wrote that Descriptives "determine their 
Objects by stating the characters of the latter" (EP 2:484; 1908, emphasis 
mine), which is what I had in mind when I said earlier that a Descriptive Sign 
is precisely one that does refer to its DO "exclusively by describing it."  
That is why it is classified as a "Descriptive"!

GF:  Can you give me one or two examples of these facts that you are referring 
to?

There are two cars located in the direction that the guy is pointing, relative 
to his current position.  One of them is red, and the other is blue.  The guy 
is calling someone else's attention to the red one.

GF:  OK, if the Peirce quotes amassed by Bellucci don’t loosen your hold on the 
Fregean interpretation of the IO, I certainly can’t do better.

I am not necessarily endorsing the Fregean interpretation of the IO; for one 
thing, I do not know enough about Frege's views to judge them one way or the 
other.  I am just continuing to define the IO as I have been doing for several 
months now--the partial combination of attributes of the DO by which the Sign 
denotes it.

GF:  I would appreciate it, though, if you could cite one or two of the 
“multiple occasions”, other than early drafts of MS 318, where Peirce states 
explicitly that every sign has an Immediate Object.

Please review the Commens Dictionary entry for the IO 
(http://www.commens.org/dictionary/term/immediate-object).  Two of the quotes 
there state explicitly that "every sign" has an IO, only one of which is from 
MS 318.  Many of the others say something like "a sign has two objects" or 
"there are two aspects of the Object," or simply define the two Objects in a 
way that at least implies that both pertain to any Sign.  Can you cite even one 
occasion where Peirce stated explicitly that only propositions have IOs?  As I 
have pointed out before, Bellucci bases this novel assertion on a single 
passage, which I believe he clearly misinterprets.

CSP:  ... when we speak of the object of a sign ... we may mean the immediate 
object, the object as the sign represents it.  For some signs separately 
represent their objects.  Every proposition does so. (R 284:54-55)

FB:  The immediate object is the "object as the sign represents it," that is to 
say, the object which those signs which separately represent an object do in 
fact represent.  The sentence "for some signs separately represent their 
objects" is crucial here.  Not all signs separately represent an object:  
rhemes do not; only propositions and proposition-like signs (dicisigns) do, 
because these signs have a part that indicates the object of which the other 
part says something.  Thus, only signs of this sort can have an immediate 
object.  For the immediate object is the "object as the sign represents it," 
and only proposition-like signs independently represent an object, and thus can 
be divided according to the way they represent the immediate object. (p. 294)

Bellucci's conclusion here simply does not follow; the fact that a Rheme does 
not separately or independently represent its Object obviously does not entail 
that it does not represent its Object at all, and therefore cannot have an IO.  
On the contrary, every Sign represents its Object--that is what it means for 
something to be a Sign in the first place!--and the IO is simply "the Object as 
represented in the sign" (EP 2:498; 1909).  Furthermore, since only Arguments 
separately represent their Interpretants, Bellucci's reasoning implies that 
only Arguments can have Immediate Interpretants.  Again, where did Peirce ever 
impose such a limitation?

Regards,


Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA

Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman

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