Edwina, List: While I understand what you are asking and why, I think that it is an inaccurate and unfair characterization of my List participation over the years. I have stated repeatedly that the issue for me is one of *terminological ethics*--in accordance with Peirce's own well-documented standards, we should not use words that he coined in ways that clearly deviate from *his *usage, especially when doing so results in a different *conceptual *scheme from anything that he actually outlined. The goal is never to *close *the discussion--I take very seriously Peirce's maxim, "Do not block the way of inquiry," and share the desire that you and others have expressed to apply his thought more broadly--but hopefully to *clarify *it; i.e., make *our *ideas, *Peirce's *ideas, and the *differences *between them clear.
Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Mon, May 20, 2019 at 3:20 PM Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> wrote: > JAS, list > > Just a brief comment. You wrote: > > "He never claimed to have worked out all of the ramifications of his > own thought during his lifetime; on the contrary, he said more than once > that he was counting on future generations to continue the work that he > had started, especially in Semeiotic." > > My question then, is why do you so instantly rebuff other's postings and > arguments about semiosic processes by declaring that their comments are > 'not made by or found in Peirce'? That is, you don't discuss the > functionality of their arguments; you just close the discussion by your > rebuttal that the very notion wasn't 'made by or found in Peirce'. > > Edwina >
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