Jeff, List:

I have been looking into this a bit more and came across another passage
where Peirce discusses the difference between nominal and real definitions.

CSP: A *Definition *is either *Nominal *or *Real*. A nominal definition
merely explains the meaning of a term which is adopted for convenience. I
shall not make separate articles for such definitions nor state them
formally. For they do not affect the course of development of the thought.
A *Real Definition* analyzes a conception. As Aristotle well says (and his
authority is well-nigh absolute upon a question of logical terminology), a
definition asserts the existence of nothing. A definition would consist of
two members, of which the first should declare that any object to which the
*definitum*, or defined term, should be applicable would possess the
characters involved in the definition; while the second should declare that
to any object which should possess those characters the definitum would be
applicable. And any proposition consisting of two members of this
description and really contributing to the development of the thought would
be a Real Definition. (NEM 4:285, c. 1901)


The manuscript where this appears, "A Sketch of Dichotomic Mathematics" (R
4), is almost certainly a draft for what ultimately became "New Elements."
Although the parallel text in the latter is much shorter, and the
nominal/real distinction is missing, it is nevertheless quite similar.

CSP: A *definition *is the logical analysis of a predicate in general
terms. It has two branches, the one asserting that the definitum is
applicable to whatever there may be to which the definition is applicable;
the other (which ordinarily has several clauses), that the definition is
applicable to whatever there may be to which the definitum is applicable. *A
definition does not assert that anything exists.* (EP 2:302, c. 1901)


In his post launching the "Ens necessarium" thread (
https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-08/msg00019.html), Gary F.
mentioned that this "term in metaphysics and theology can be traced back to
Francisco Suárez (if not further)." I subsequently observed that the Logic
Notebook entry of 1908 Aug 28 presents Peirce's versions of Leibniz's
principal of sufficient reason (PSR) and resulting *cosmological *argument (
https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-08/msg00050.html). Further
investigation has led me to suspect strongly that it is primarily from
Leibniz that Peirce got the idea of defining God as *Ens necessarium*.

It turns out that Leibniz wrestled with the specific challenge of turning
this nominal definition into a real definition by establishing that such a
being is *possible*. In my post launching the "Peirce and Anselm" thread (
https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-08/msg00075.html), I offered
this simple *ontological *argumentation for the reality of God.

P3. If God is possibly real, then God is necessarily real.

P2. God is possibly real.

C2. Therefore, God is necessarily real.

A1. If God is necessarily real, then God is actually real.

C1. Therefore, God is actually real.


There is no ambiguity since "possibly" is equivalent to "not necessarily
not" and "necessarily" is equivalent to "not possibly not." P3 is
stipulated in accordance with the nominal definition of God as *Ens
necessarium*, A1 is the uncontroversial modal axiom T, and both C2 (from P3
and P2) and C1 (from C2 and A1) follow deductively by the classical
inference rule of *modus ponens*. Hence, the argumentation is indisputably
*valid*; so, if P2 is true, then the argumentation is also *sound*, such
that C1 is likewise true. However, if P2 is false--if God is *not *possibly
real, or even if God is possibly *not *real (P4)--then what follows
deductively instead is that God is *not *actually real. In other words, as
I have noted before, the persuasiveness of this argumentation hinges
entirely on the perceived plausibility of P2 vs. P4.

My understanding is that adding P2 (once demonstrated) to P3 would
constitute a *real *definition of God as *Ens necessarium*. Like any
definition, it still does not assert the *actual *reality of anything, only
the *possible *reality of what it defines; but in this case, its actual
reality then follows from the unique *nominal *definition of God as "that
which would Really be in any possible state of things whatever" (R
339:[295r], 1908 Aug 28). Before exploring whether and how the truth of P2
*can*, in fact, be established, I will pause here to ask a question--is all
this consistent with what you had in mind when you brought up
nominal/verbal vs. real definitions?

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

>
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