Whenever you use  ?.  it begins again at the same starting point of a random
sequence for your system. I didn'try enough examples: 
    
     ]R=:?4#100
48 43 50 59
   ]R=:?4#100
12 74 85 21
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?4#100
6 67 55 61
   ]R=:?4#100
0 47 63 71
   ]R=:(?100),(?.100),?.100
74 46 46
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?4#100
34 67 69 38

Linda

-----Original Message-----
From: programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com
[mailto:programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com] On Behalf Of Ric Sherlock
Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 9:05 PM
To: Programming JForum
Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1

According to the Dictionary ?. uses a fixed random seed ( 7^5 ) and a fixed
RNG so it should always give the same result no matter how many uses of ?
prior to its use.

I suspect that any differences observed from one machine/session to another
are caused by differences in the bitness (32 vs 64) or differences in the
underlying processor architecture (Intel vs AMD).


On Wed, Dec 12, 2012 at 1:56 PM, Linda Alvord
<lindaalv...@verizon.net>wrote:

> I think the first digit of  ?.  locks in a seed and a sequence of 
> random digits and then that sequence will be used in all examples in 
> that session each time  ?  is used.
> If 30 random numbers are used in an application, when another 
> application is used that session.o
>
> To get "new" random numbers, use  ?  , but if you now use  ?.  you 
> can't guarantee that someone will have done the same number of uses of  ?
> already.
> Thus there is no guarantee that thy will agree.  However, you can now 
> use that new seed until you change from  ?. back to "real random".
>
> I hope this true and really what happens, I'm sure there will be 
> someone who will set the record straight.
>
> Linda
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com
> [mailto:programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com] On Behalf Of Brian 
> Schott
> Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 6:28 PM
> To: programm...@jsoftware.com
> Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1
>
> Linda,
>
> Yes, I get your same result on my iPad.
> But, I do not get the same result when instead of 1000, 2 is used on 
> my iPad and my desktop. That is peculiar, but ... .
>
> On Tue, Dec 11, 2012 at 5:12 PM, Linda Alvord 
> <lindaalv...@verizon.net>
> wrote:
> > Try just the first line of this in a new version (as the first use 
> > of
> > ?.) in J701jhs or J701gtk and or any old J's you can find and the 
> > result should be the same:
> >
> >    ]A=.?.3#1000
> > 146 755 79
> >
> >
>
> --
> (B=)
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