This is getting off topic,  but still....
?. is supposed to give the same results on each call.

I still usually use v6.02, but following your remark, Linda, I've just tried JGTK:

   JVERSION
Engine: j701/2011-01-10/11:25
Library: 7.01.076
Platform: Win 32
Installer: j701a_win.exe
InstallPath: d:/j701

   am"1] 2 6 ?.@$ 2
_1 1  1 _1 _1  1
_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1

This agrees with my earlier result:

   JVERSION
Installer: j602a_win.exe
Engine: j602/2008-03-03/16:45
Library: 6.02.063

   am"1] 2 6 ?.@$ 2
_1 1  1 _1 _1  1
_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1

Mike

On 11/12/2012 5:25 PM, Linda Alvord wrote:
Won't your results agree if you both use a new version of J and then  ?. as
the same first thing in the jijx?

Linda

-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected]
[mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mike Day
Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 12:12 PM
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1

Sorry - I thought there'd been no replies to Brian's query when I posted
this.  Don't know how I missed them all.  No plagiarism intended!

Mike

On 11/12/2012 11:12 AM, Mike Day wrote:
On 11/12/2012 12:13 AM, Brian Schott wrote:
Is there a better way than the verb `am` to do the following?

    am =:_1& (I.@:-.@]})
    am"1] 2 6 ?.@$ 2
_1 _1 _1 _1 1 _1
_1 _1 _1  1 1 _1

===============================================
Here are three other simple ways- my "random" array appears to be
different from yours(!?):

    ((_1 + +:) ; ({&_1 1) ; (_1&^@>:); am"1 )2 6 ?.@$ 2
+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+
|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1 1 _1 _1  1|
|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|
+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+


Mike
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