I think the first digit of ?. locks in a seed and a sequence of random digits and then that sequence will be used in all examples in that session each time ? is used. If 30 random numbers are used in an application, when another application is used that session.o
To get "new" random numbers, use ? , but if you now use ?. you can't guarantee that someone will have done the same number of uses of ? already. Thus there is no guarantee that thy will agree. However, you can now use that new seed until you change from ?. back to "real random". I hope this true and really what happens, I'm sure there will be someone who will set the record straight. Linda -----Original Message----- From: programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com [mailto:programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com] On Behalf Of Brian Schott Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 6:28 PM To: programm...@jsoftware.com Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1 Linda, Yes, I get your same result on my iPad. But, I do not get the same result when instead of 1000, 2 is used on my iPad and my desktop. That is peculiar, but ... . On Tue, Dec 11, 2012 at 5:12 PM, Linda Alvord <lindaalv...@verizon.net> wrote: > Try just the first line of this in a new version (as the first use of > ?.) in J701jhs or J701gtk and or any old J's you can find and the > result should be the same: > > ]A=.?.3#1000 > 146 755 79 > > -- (B=) ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
