Won't your results agree if you both use a new version of J and then ?. as the same first thing in the jijx?
Linda -----Original Message----- From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mike Day Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 12:12 PM To: [email protected] Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1 Sorry - I thought there'd been no replies to Brian's query when I posted this. Don't know how I missed them all. No plagiarism intended! Mike On 11/12/2012 11:12 AM, Mike Day wrote: > On 11/12/2012 12:13 AM, Brian Schott wrote: > Is there a better way than the verb `am` to do the following? > > am =:_1& (I.@:-.@]}) > am"1] 2 6 ?.@$ 2 > _1 _1 _1 _1 1 _1 > _1 _1 _1 1 1 _1 > > =============================================== > Here are three other simple ways- my "random" array appears to be > different from yours(!?): > > ((_1 + +:) ; ({&_1 1) ; (_1&^@>:); am"1 )2 6 ?.@$ 2 > +----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ > |_1 1 1 _1 _1 1|_1 1 1 _1 _1 1|_1 1 1 _1 _1 1|_1 1 1 _1 _1 1| > |_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1| > +----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ > > > Mike > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- > For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
