Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Oct 2011, at 21:05, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Oct 1, 10:13 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 01 Oct 2011, at 03:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:




The singularity is all the matter that there is, was, and will be,  
but

it has no exterior - no cracks made of space or time, it's all
interiority. It's feelings, images, experiences, expectations,  
dreams,
etc, and whatever countless other forms might exist in the cosmos.  
You

can use arithmetic to render an impersonation of feeling, as you can
write a song that feels arithmetic - but not all songs feel
arithmetic. You can write a poem about a color or you can write an
equation about visible electromagnetism, but neither completely
describe either color or electromagnetism.


I have no clue what you are taking about.
That your conclusion makes some arithmetical being looking like
impersonal zombie is just racism for me.


I don't think that there are any arithmetical beings.


In which theory?




It's a fantasy,
or really more of a presumption mistaking an narrow category of
understanding with a cosmic primitive.


You miss the incompleteness discoveries. To believe that arithmetic is  
narrow just tell me something about you, not about arithmetic. It  
means that you have a pregodelian conception of arithmetic. We know  
today that arithmetic is beyond any conceivable effective  
axiomatizations.







So I see a sort of racism against machine or numbers, justified by
unintelligible sentences.


I know that's what you see. I think that it is the shadow of your own
overconfidence in the theoretical-mechanistic perspective that you
project onto me.


You are the one developing a philosophy making human with prosthetic  
brain less human, if not zombie.










This is the kind of strong metaphysical and aristotleian  
assumption
which I am not sure to see the need for, beyond extrapolating  
from

our
direct experience.



Is it better to extrapolate only from indirect experience?



It is better to derive from clear assumptions.



Clear assumptions can be the most misleading kind.


But that is the goal. Celar assumption leads to clear misleading,
which can then be corrected with respect to facts, or repeatable
experiments.
Unclear assumptions lead to arbitrariness, racism, etc.


To me the goal is to reveal the truth,


That is a personal goal. I don't think that truth can be revealed,  
only questioned.





regardless of the nature of the
assumptions which are required to get there. If you a priori prejudice
the cosmos against figurative, multivalent phenomenology then you just
confirm your own bias.


I don't hide this, and it is part of the scientific (modest) method. I  
assume comp, and I derive consequences in that frame. Everyone is free  
to use this for or against some world view.








I don't think there is a microcosmos illusion, unless you are  
talking

about the current assumptions of the Standard Model as particles.
That's not an illusion though, just a specialized interpretation  
that

doesn't scale up to the macrocosm. As far as where sensorimotive
phenomena comes from, it precedes causality. 'Comes from' is a
sensorimotive proposition and not the other way around. The
singularity functions inherently as supremacy of orientation, and
sense and motive are energetic functions of the difference between  
it

and it's existential annihilation through time and space.


That does not help.



That doesn't help me either.


I mean: I don't understand. To much precise terms in a field where we  
question the meaning of even simpler terms.






Specifically, like if you have any two atoms, something must have a
sense of what is supposed to happen when they get close to each  
other.

Iron atoms have a particular way of relating that's different from
carbon atoms, and that relation can be quantified. That doesn't mean
that the relation is nothing but a quantitative skeleton. There is  
an

actual experience going on - an attraction, a repulsion, momentum,
acceleration...various states of holding, releasing, or binding a
'charge'. What looks like a charge to us under a microscope is in  
fact

a proto-feeling with an associated range of proto-motivations.


Why?



Because that's what we are made of.


Why should I take your words for granted.



?
(I let you know that one of my main motivation consists in explaining
the physical, that is explaining it without using physical notions  
and

assumptions. The same for consciousness).


But what you are explaining it with is no more explainable than
physical notions or assumptions. Why explain what is real in terms
which are not real?


You are just begging the question. You talk like if you knew what is  
real or not.
Now it is the fact that all scientist agree with simple facts like  
1+9=10, etc. Actually they are using such facts already in their  
theories. I just show that IF we are machine, THEN those elementary  
facts are enough to explain the less elementary one.



Re: Interesting paper on consciousness, computation and MWI

2011-10-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Oct 2011, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/1/2011 8:15 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 01 Oct 2011, at 09:31, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Sep 22, 2011 at 07:02:28PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


OK. But note that in this case you are using the notion of 3-OM (or
computational state), not Bostrom notion of 1-OM (or my notion of
first person state).
The 3-OM are countable, but the 1-OMs are not.


Could you explain more why you think this? AFAICT, Bostrom makes no
mention of the cardinality of his OMs.


I don't think that Bostrom mentions the cardinality of his OMs,  
indeed. I don't think that he clearly distinguish the 1-OMs and the  
3-OMs either. By 3-OM I refer to the computational state per se,  
as defined relatively to the UD deployment (UD*). Those are clearly  
infinite and countable, even recursively countable.


The 1-OMs, for any person, are not recursively countable, indeed by  
an application of a theorem of Rice, they are not even 3- 
recognizable. Or more simply because you cannot know your  
substitution level. In front of some portion of UD*, you cannot  
recognize your 1-OMs in general. You cannot say I am here, and  
there, etc. But they are (non constructively) well defined. God  
can know that you are here, and there, ...


Wouldn't that require that all the infinite UD calculations be  
completed before all the you could be indentified?


The infinite UD calculations are just number relations, which are out  
of space and time.






And the measure on the 1-OMs should be defined on those  
unrecognizable 1-OMs.


Are the 1-OMs countable? In the quote above, I say that they are  
not countable. What I meant by this is related to the measure  
problem, which cannot be made on the states themselves, but, I  
think, on the computational histories going through them, and,  
actually,  on *all* computational histories going through them.  
This includes the dummy histories which duplicate you iteratively  
through some processes similar to the infinite iteration of the WM  
self-duplication. Even if you don't interact with the output (here:  
W or M) or the iteration, such computations multiplies in the non- 
countable infinity. (I am using implictly the fist person  
indeterminacy, of course). Those computation will have the shape:


you M
you M
you W
you M
You W
You W
You W
You M
ad infinitum

This gives a white noise, which is not necessarily available to  
you, but it still multiplies (in the most possible dumb way) your  
computational histories. Such infinite computations, which are  
somehow dovetailing on the reals (infinite sequence of W and M)  
have a higher measure than any finite computations and so are good  
candidates for the winning computations. Note that such an  
infinite background noise, although not directly accessible through  
your 1-OMs,  should be experimentally detectable when you look at  
yourselves+neighborhood below the substitution level, and indeed QM  
confirms this by the many (up + down) superposition states of the  
particles states in the (assumed to be infinite) multi-universes.


But aside from the quantum level, doesn't the measure problem have  
the same drawback and Boltzman's brains.  Shouldn't I find myself in  
a world where everyone is Brent Meeker?


Well, if you prove this, then you refute comp (and most of its super- 
Turing weakenings).
The big difference between Boltzman brains and UD*, is that the first  
are not well defined and depends on physical assumption, the second is  
well defined and depends only of the addition and multiplication laws  
of non negative integers.


Bruno






This might be also confirmed by some possible semantics for the  
logic of the first person points of view (the quantified logic  
qS4Grz1, qX1* have, I think, non countable important models).


3-OMs are relatively simple objects, but 1-OMs are more  
sophisticated, and are defined together with the set of all  
computations going through their correspondent states.


To be sure, I am not entirely persuaded that Bostrom's 1-OMs makes  
sense with digital mechanism, and usually I prefer to use the label  
of first person experiences/histories. With the rule Y = II, that  
is: a bifurcation of a computations entails a doubling of the  
measure even on its past (in the UD steps sense), this makes  
clear that we have a continuum of infinite histories.
Again, this is made more complex when we take amnesia and fusion of  
histories) into consideration.


I hope this helps a bit. In my opinion, only further progress on  
the hypostases modal logics will make it possible to isolate a  
reasonable definition of 1-OMs, which obviously is a quite  
intricate notion.


Bruno






--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South 

BOI Chapter 8 vs Schmidhuber

2011-10-02 Thread Russell Standish
In David Deutsch's Beginning of Infinity chapter 8, he criticises
Schmidhuber's Great Programmer idea by saying that it is giving up on
explanation in science, as the hardware on which the Great Program
runs is unknowable.

David, why do you say that? Surely, the question of what hardware is
implementing the Great Simulators simply becomes uninteresting, much like
the medieval arguments about the number of angels dancing on the head
of a pin. It is unknowable, and it doesn't matter, as any universal
machine will do.

The second question I have to David is why you say The whole point of
universality is lost if one conceives of computation as being somehow
prior to the physical world.?

I do appreciate that mathematically, hypercomputers exist, an example
being the infinity hotel example you give in your book. So a
consequence of something like Schmidhuber's theory is that
hypercomputers can never exist in our physical world.

I suppose you would say that if physics were generated by machine, why
the class of Turing universal machine, and not some hyper-(hyper-)
machine? Whereas in a physics-first scenario, physics can only support
Turing computation.

Surely though, we can reverse the question in the physics-first case -
why can't physics support hypercomputation?

Cheers

I'm copying this to the everything-list, as people there are
interested in this topic too.
-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: BOI Chapter 8 vs Schmidhuber

2011-10-02 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Russell,


On 02 Oct 2011, at 11:37, Russell Standish wrote:


In David Deutsch's Beginning of Infinity chapter 8, he criticises
Schmidhuber's Great Programmer idea by saying that it is giving up on
explanation in science,


Actually I did address this point on the FOR list years ago.
Somehow,  I share David's critics on Schmidhuber's idea of a great  
programmer when seen as an *explanation* (of everything). My (older,  
btw) publications makes this point clear.  The Universal Dovetailer  
(which can be seen as an effective and precise version of the great  
programmer, and which is a tiny part of elementary arithmetical  
truth) makes it possible to *formulate* (not solve!)  the mind body  
problem mathematically, but Schmidhuber use it as an explanation gap.  
He missed the fact that if we are machine we cannot know in which  
computations we are and we have to recover the physical laws, not from  
one computation but from an internal (self-referential) statistics on  
infinities of computations, and that statistics has to be recovered  
entirely from the self-reference ability of machine.
The consequence is that, a priori, the laws of physical cannot be  
digital, the physical reality cannot be Turing emulable, nor can  
consciousness. Both matter and mind becomes global feature of the  
fabric of reality. Mechanism (I am a machine) entails that the  
everything which is not me, cannot be a machine (like arithmeyical  
truth cannot be emulated by any machines). In fact mechanism is  
incompatible with digital physics.


Mechanism (I am a machine) entails that the everything which is not  
me, cannot be a machine (like arithmetical truth cannot be emulated  
by any machines). In fact mechanism is incompatible with digital  
physics.
But this was an answer to David's remark that the great programmers  
explains too much, and so don't explain anything. In fact it explains  
nothing, but its effective version makes it possible to formulate the  
mind body problem, and to solve it both conceptually, and technically  
(but this leads to mathematical open problems, some of which have been  
solved since).




as the hardware on which the Great Program
runs is unknowable.


Of course the contrary is true. If we are machine, we know (up to some  
recursive equivalence) what runs us, and where the possible hardware  
come from. Any first order specification of any universal machine or  
theory will do the job. I use elementary arithmetic because we are all  
familiar with it. The laws of physics cannot depend on that choice.






David, why do you say that? Surely, the question of what hardware is
implementing the Great Simulators simply becomes uninteresting, much  
like

the medieval arguments about the number of angels dancing on the head
of a pin. It is unknowable, and it doesn't matter, as any universal
machine will do.


I disagree with this. The notion of primitive hardware is precisely  
shown to be meaningless. The laws of physics are shown to be machine  
independent. Eventually the initial universal system plays the role of  
a coordinate system, and the laws of physics does not depend on it.





The second question I have to David is why you say The whole point of
universality is lost if one conceives of computation as being somehow
prior to the physical world.?


Good question. I am interested in what David can say about this. The  
notion of universality has been discovered by mathematician, and is  
indeed a provably arithmetical property of numbers, relatively to  
numbers.





I do appreciate that mathematically, hypercomputers exist, an example
being the infinity hotel example you give in your book.


I will have to read that. In fact I think that hypercomputation is a  
red herring. Basically our reality must seem hypercomputed (and even  
worst that that) once we are digital machine. The analytical (which is  
above the arithmetical, which is itself above the computable (sigma_1  
arithmetical), and the physical are internal aspect of the computable,  
once we assume that we (not the universe) are Turing emulable.





So a
consequence of something like Schmidhuber's theory is that
hypercomputers can never exist in our physical world.


The opposite conclusion than mechanism. But digital physics entails  
mechanism, and mechanism entails the falsity of digital physics. This  
means that digital physics is a contradictory notion.




I suppose you would say that if physics were generated by machine, why
the class of Turing universal machine, and not some hyper-(hyper-)
machine? Whereas in a physics-first scenario, physics can only support
Turing computation.


If I (whatever I am) is a machine, then the universe (whatever  
responsible for me to exist) cannot be a machine, nor explicitly  
generated by a machine (but it can be, and need to be *apparent* to  
machines points of view). This follows from the Universal Dovetailer  
Argument (and I wait some replies on it on the FOR list).


Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 1, 8:52 pm, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 5:35 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
  I'm afraid the analogies you use don't help, at least for me. Does an
  ion channel ever open in the absence of an observable cause? It's a
  simple yes/no question. Whether consciousness is associated,
  supervenient, linked, provided by God or whatever is a separate
  question.

  Observable by who?

 Observable by a third party.

Yes. If you only look at the ion channels of a neuron in someone's
amygdala without knowing what you are looking at or what the subject
is thinking about, then you are not going to know that the voltage is
changing because they are thinking of hitting a straight flush on the
river after going 'all in'. If you trace it back further, you will see
earlier voltage changes or depolarizations in cognitive areas, and
then in the audio sensory areas of the brain if the suggestion came as
a verbal instruction from a researcher. None of those changes in
different regions of the brain mean anything though except in
reference to the back end semantic understanding.

Craig

Craig

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Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 2, 5:01 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 01 Oct 2011, at 21:05, Craig Weinberg wrote:

  On Oct 1, 10:13 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 01 Oct 2011, at 03:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:

  The singularity is all the matter that there is, was, and will be,
  but
  it has no exterior - no cracks made of space or time, it's all
  interiority. It's feelings, images, experiences, expectations,
  dreams,
  etc, and whatever countless other forms might exist in the cosmos.
  You
  can use arithmetic to render an impersonation of feeling, as you can
  write a song that feels arithmetic - but not all songs feel
  arithmetic. You can write a poem about a color or you can write an
  equation about visible electromagnetism, but neither completely
  describe either color or electromagnetism.

  I have no clue what you are taking about.
  That your conclusion makes some arithmetical being looking like
  impersonal zombie is just racism for me.

  I don't think that there are any arithmetical beings.

 In which theory?

In reality.


  It's a fantasy,
  or really more of a presumption mistaking an narrow category of
  understanding with a cosmic primitive.

 You miss the incompleteness discoveries. To believe that arithmetic is
 narrow just tell me something about you, not about arithmetic. It
 means that you have a pregodelian conception of arithmetic. We know
 today that arithmetic is beyond any conceivable effective
 axiomatizations.

I don't disagree with arithmetic being exactly what you say it is,
only that it cannot be realized except through sensorimotive
experience. Without that actualization - to be computed neurologically
or digitally in semiconductors, analogously in beer bottles, etc, then
there is only the idea of the existence of arithmetic, which also is a
sensorimotive experience or nothing at all. There is no arithmetic
'out there', it's only inside of matter.

So yes, arithmetic extends to the inconceivable and nonaxiomatizable
but the sensorimotive gestalts underlying arithmetic are much more
inconceivable and nonaxiomatizable. A greater infinity.




  So I see a sort of racism against machine or numbers, justified by
  unintelligible sentences.

  I know that's what you see. I think that it is the shadow of your own
  overconfidence in the theoretical-mechanistic perspective that you
  project onto me.

 You are the one developing a philosophy making human with prosthetic
 brain less human, if not zombie.

I'm not against a prosthetic brain, I just think that it's going to
have to be made of some kind of cells that live and die, which may
mean that it has to be organic, which may mean that it has to be based
on nucleic acids. Your theory would conclude that we should see
naturally evolved brains made out of a variety of materials not based
on living cells if we look long enough. I don't think that is
necessarily the case.




  This is the kind of strong metaphysical and aristotleian
  assumption
  which I am not sure to see the need for, beyond extrapolating
  from
  our
  direct experience.

  Is it better to extrapolate only from indirect experience?

  It is better to derive from clear assumptions.

  Clear assumptions can be the most misleading kind.

  But that is the goal. Celar assumption leads to clear misleading,
  which can then be corrected with respect to facts, or repeatable
  experiments.
  Unclear assumptions lead to arbitrariness, racism, etc.

  To me the goal is to reveal the truth,

 That is a personal goal. I don't think that truth can be revealed,
 only questioned.

How can you question it if it is not revealed?


  regardless of the nature of the
  assumptions which are required to get there. If you a priori prejudice
  the cosmos against figurative, multivalent phenomenology then you just
  confirm your own bias.

 I don't hide this, and it is part of the scientific (modest) method. I
 assume comp, and I derive consequences in that frame. Everyone is free
 to use this for or against some world view.


It's a good method for so many things, but not everything, and I'm
only interested in solving everything.



  I don't think there is a microcosmos illusion, unless you are
  talking
  about the current assumptions of the Standard Model as particles.
  That's not an illusion though, just a specialized interpretation
  that
  doesn't scale up to the macrocosm. As far as where sensorimotive
  phenomena comes from, it precedes causality. 'Comes from' is a
  sensorimotive proposition and not the other way around. The
  singularity functions inherently as supremacy of orientation, and
  sense and motive are energetic functions of the difference between
  it
  and it's existential annihilation through time and space.

  That does not help.

  That doesn't help me either.

 I mean: I don't understand. To much precise terms in a field where we
 question the meaning of even simpler terms.

I have precise terms because I have a precise understanding of 

Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 10:58 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Oct 1, 8:52 pm, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 5:35 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
  I'm afraid the analogies you use don't help, at least for me. Does an
  ion channel ever open in the absence of an observable cause? It's a
  simple yes/no question. Whether consciousness is associated,
  supervenient, linked, provided by God or whatever is a separate
  question.

  Observable by who?

 Observable by a third party.

 Yes. If you only look at the ion channels of a neuron in someone's
 amygdala without knowing what you are looking at or what the subject
 is thinking about, then you are not going to know that the voltage is
 changing because they are thinking of hitting a straight flush on the
 river after going 'all in'. If you trace it back further, you will see
 earlier voltage changes or depolarizations in cognitive areas, and
 then in the audio sensory areas of the brain if the suggestion came as
 a verbal instruction from a researcher. None of those changes in
 different regions of the brain mean anything though except in
 reference to the back end semantic understanding.

So you do believe that ion channels will open without an observable
cause, since thoughts are not an observable cause. A neuroscientist
would see neurons firing apparently for no reason, violating physical
laws.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: David Eagleman on CHOICE

2011-10-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 3:01 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 It's a strange, almost paradoxical result but I think observer moments
 can be sub-conscious. If we say the minimum duration of a conscious
 moment is 100ms then 99ms and the remaining 1ms of this can occur at
 different times, perhaps billions of years of real time apart, perhaps
 simultaneously or in the reverse order. You would have the experience
 provided only that the full 100ms even if broken up into infinitesimal
 intervals occurs somewhere, sometime.


 That sounds like a temporal homunculus.  :-)

 Note that on a nanosecond scale there is no state of the brain.
  Relativity applies to brains too and so the time order of events on
 opposite sides of your head only defined to within about a nanosecond.

The brain is limited for technical reasons, relativity being the least
of them. It isn't possible to stop it for a microsecond and restart it
at exactly the same state. With a computer you can do this although
you are limited to discrete digital states: you can't save the state
as logic circuits are transitioning from 1 to 0. But this doesn't
change the argument that, to the extent that the physics allows it,
the machine states may be arbitrarily divided. It then becomes a
matter of definition whether we say the conscious states can also be
arbitrarily divided. If stream of consciousness A-B-C supervenes on
machine state a-b-c where A-B, B-C, A-B-C, but not A, B or C alone are
of sufficient duration to count as consciousness should we say the
observer moments are A-B, B-C and A-B-C, or should we say that the
observer moments are A, B, C? I think it's simpler to say that the
atomic observer moments are A, B, C even though individually they lack
content.


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Re: David Eagleman on CHOICE

2011-10-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 4:16 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 It's a strange, almost paradoxical result but I think observer moments
 can be sub-conscious. If we say the minimum duration of a conscious
 moment is 100ms then 99ms and the remaining 1ms of this can occur at
 different times, perhaps billions of years of real time apart, perhaps
 simultaneously or in the reverse order. You would have the experience
 provided only that the full 100ms even if broken up into infinitesimal
 intervals occurs somewhere, sometime.


 I think that you are crossing the limit of your pedagogical use of the
 physical supervenience thesis. You might be led to a direct contradiction,
 which might lead to a new proof of its inconsistency.
 Consciousness cannot be associated with any particular implementation
 (physical or not) of a computation. It is related to an infinity of
 computations, structured by the self (or possible self-reference).

Nevertheless, you talk about swapping your brain for a suitably
designed computer and consciousness surviving teleportation and
pauses/restarts of the computer. As a starting point, these ideas
assume the physical supervenience thesis.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 2, 9:28 am, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:


 So you do believe that ion channels will open without an observable
 cause, since thoughts are not an observable cause. A neuroscientist
 would see neurons firing apparently for no reason, violating physical
 laws.

Thoughts are observable to the thinker. No physical laws are violated.
When a person thinks of gambling, the associated neurons fire for that
reason. The firings have a proximate cause - changes in voltage or
polarity, etc, but those phenomena also are activated because the
person who they are part of thinks of gambling. Both the thought and
the mechanism are part of the same thing, a thing which has it's only
existence as the dualistic relation between the two.

If you stimulate the amygdala in a gambler directly with
electromagnetically charged instruments, then they will likely be
reminded of the feeling of gambling. If you stimulate the area in
someone who has never gambled, the would be reminded instead of the
feeling of jumping across a creek or lying to their teacher or
something. It is bi-directional. I don't understand why that would be
such a difficult concept to consider. I can put a magnet onto the
screen of a CRT and cause it to change colors, or rub my eyes with my
hands to see colors and patterns but that doesn't mean that they have
to be manually manipulated that way to function.

Craig

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Re: David Eagleman on CHOICE

2011-10-02 Thread meekerdb

On 10/2/2011 7:13 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Sun, Oct 2, 2011 at 3:01 AM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:


It's a strange, almost paradoxical result but I think observer moments
can be sub-conscious. If we say the minimum duration of a conscious
moment is 100ms then 99ms and the remaining 1ms of this can occur at
different times, perhaps billions of years of real time apart, perhaps
simultaneously or in the reverse order. You would have the experience
provided only that the full 100ms even if broken up into infinitesimal
intervals occurs somewhere, sometime.



That sounds like a temporal homunculus.  :-)

Note that on a nanosecond scale there is no state of the brain.
  Relativity applies to brains too and so the time order of events on
opposite sides of your head only defined to within about a nanosecond.

The brain is limited for technical reasons, relativity being the least
of them.


Sure.  Action potentials are only few hundred meters/sec.


It isn't possible to stop it for a microsecond and restart it
at exactly the same state. With a computer you can do this although
you are limited to discrete digital states: you can't save the state
as logic circuits are transitioning from 1 to 0.


But you can do it, and in fact it's implicit in a Turing machine, i.e. an abstract 
computation.  So I'm wondering what consequences this has for Bruno's idea that you are 
a bundle of computations that are passing through your current state?  The computational 
states are sharp, discrete things.  The brains states are fuzzy distributed things.



But this doesn't
change the argument that, to the extent that the physics allows it,
the machine states may be arbitrarily divided. It then becomes a
matter of definition whether we say the conscious states can also be
arbitrarily divided. If stream of consciousness A-B-C supervenes on
machine state a-b-c where A-B, B-C, A-B-C, but not A, B or C alone are
of sufficient duration to count as consciousness should we say the
observer moments are A-B, B-C and A-B-C, or should we say that the
observer moments are A, B, C? I think it's simpler to say that the
atomic observer moments are A, B, C even though individually they lack
content.




I think we've discussed this before.  It you define them as A, B, C then the lack of 
content means they don't have inherent order; where as AB, BC, CD,... do have inherent 
order because they overlap.  I don't think this affects the argument except to note that 
OMs are not the same as computational states.


Brent

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Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread meekerdb

On 10/2/2011 10:14 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:

On Oct 2, 9:28 am, Stathis Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  wrote:


So you do believe that ion channels will open without an observable
cause, since thoughts are not an observable cause. A neuroscientist
would see neurons firing apparently for no reason, violating physical
laws.

Thoughts are observable to the thinker. No physical laws are violated.
When a person thinks of gambling, the associated neurons fire for that
reason. The firings have a proximate cause - changes in voltage or
polarity, etc, but those phenomena also are activated because the
person who they are part of thinks of gambling. Both the thought and
the mechanism are part of the same thing, a thing which has it's only
existence as the dualistic relation between the two.


If they are part of the same thing, then it is presumptuous to say one causes the other.  
One might at well say the neurons firing caused the thought of gambling - and in fact that 
is what Stathis is saying and for the very good reason that a little electrical 
stimulation, that has no thought or sensorimotive correlate, can cause both neurons 
firing AND their correlated thoughts.  But thoughts cannot cause the electrical stimulator 
to fire.  So it is *not* bidirectional.


Brent



If you stimulate the amygdala in a gambler directly with
electromagnetically charged instruments, then they will likely be
reminded of the feeling of gambling. If you stimulate the area in
someone who has never gambled, the would be reminded instead of the
feeling of jumping across a creek or lying to their teacher or
something. It is bi-directional. I don't understand why that would be
such a difficult concept to consider. I can put a magnet onto the
screen of a CRT and cause it to change colors, or rub my eyes with my
hands to see colors and patterns but that doesn't mean that they have
to be manually manipulated that way to function.

Craig



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Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-02 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 2, 7:00 pm, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 10/2/2011 10:14 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:

  On Oct 2, 9:28 am, Stathis Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  wrote:

  So you do believe that ion channels will open without an observable
  cause, since thoughts are not an observable cause. A neuroscientist
  would see neurons firing apparently for no reason, violating physical
  laws.
  Thoughts are observable to the thinker. No physical laws are violated.
  When a person thinks of gambling, the associated neurons fire for that
  reason. The firings have a proximate cause - changes in voltage or
  polarity, etc, but those phenomena also are activated because the
  person who they are part of thinks of gambling. Both the thought and
  the mechanism are part of the same thing, a thing which has it's only
  existence as the dualistic relation between the two.

 If they are part of the same thing, then it is presumptuous to say one causes 
 the other.  
 One might at well say the neurons firing caused the thought of gambling - and 
 in fact that
 is what Stathis is saying and for the very good reason that a little 
 electrical
 stimulation, that has no thought or sensorimotive correlate, can cause 
 both neurons
 firing AND their correlated thoughts.  But thoughts cannot cause the 
 electrical stimulator
 to fire.  So it is *not* bidirectional.


What do you mean? Thoughts *do* cause an electrical detector to fire.
That's what an MRI shows. You could use any kind of electrical probe
or sensor instead as long as it is sufficiently sensitive to detect
the ordinary firing of a neuron. That's how it's possible to have
thought-driven computers.
http://www.pcworld.com/article/129889/scientists_show_thoughtcontrolled_computer_at_cebit.html

Craig

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Re: BOI Chapter 8 vs Schmidhuber

2011-10-02 Thread Russell Standish
On Sun, Oct 02, 2011 at 01:42:19PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Hi Russell,
 
 
 On 02 Oct 2011, at 11:37, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 In David Deutsch's Beginning of Infinity chapter 8, he criticises
 Schmidhuber's Great Programmer idea by saying that it is giving up on
 explanation in science,
 
 Actually I did address this point on the FOR list years ago.
 Somehow,  I share David's critics on Schmidhuber's idea of a great
 programmer when seen as an *explanation* (of everything). My (older,
 btw) publications makes this point clear.  The Universal Dovetailer
 (which can be seen as an effective and precise version of the great
 programmer, and which is a tiny part of elementary arithmetical
 truth) makes it possible to *formulate* (not solve!)  the mind body
 problem mathematically, but Schmidhuber use it as an explanation
 gap. He missed the fact that if we are machine we cannot know in
 which computations we are and we have to recover the physical laws,
 not from one computation but from an internal (self-referential)
 statistics on infinities of computations, and that statistics has to
 be recovered entirely from the self-reference ability of machine.

Sure - Schmidhuber, with his speed prior, assumed that the specific
implementation of the universal reference machine has physical
consequences, but we, thanks to your work, know better.

David's criticism was quite specific - because the specific
implementation of the UTM doesn't have any physical consequences,
therefore one is somehow giving up on obtaining the ulimate
explanation. My response was that surely the question becomes
uninteresting (David's terminology) - or even meaningless (as you state below).

... snip ...

 But this was an answer to David's remark that the great
 programmers explains too much, and so don't explain anything. 

I'm aware of this criticism, which applies to ensemble theories in
general. IMHO, the only way to address that critique is with some sort of
observer-relative anthropic selection - but that is a whole other topic!

 
 as the hardware on which the Great Program
 runs is unknowable.
 
 Of course the contrary is true. If we are machine, we know (up to
 some recursive equivalence) what runs us, and where the possible
 hardware come from. Any first order specification of any universal
 machine or theory will do the job. I use elementary arithmetic
 because we are all familiar with it. The laws of physics cannot
 depend on that choice.

We're actually saying the same thing here.

 
 David, why do you say that? Surely, the question of what hardware is
 implementing the Great Simulators simply becomes uninteresting,
 much like
 the medieval arguments about the number of angels dancing on the head
 of a pin. It is unknowable, and it doesn't matter, as any universal
 machine will do.
 
 I disagree with this. The notion of primitive hardware is precisely
 shown to be meaningless. The laws of physics are shown to be machine
 independent. Eventually the initial universal system plays the role
 of a coordinate system, and the laws of physics does not depend on
 it.

Isn't this stating the above in a stronger form? Meaningless, rather
than unknowable?


-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: [foar] BOI Chapter 8 vs Schmidhuber

2011-10-02 Thread Kim Jones
You could simply point to Goedel's Incompleteness Theorem which kind of 
mandates that not everything in a universe is explicable from *within* that 
universe. This is not to give up on explanation. This *is* the explanation. It 
is neither good nor bad as an explanation - but it does require an 'act of 
faith'.  As Bruno Marchal says, there are realities we can never prove, merely 
bet on. These things tend to end up being classified as 'religion' but, bless 
me, that's the value of religion! It allows us to have a point of view on 
things we can never prove in this life. Doesn't have to be organised, public 
religion - PERSONAL religion is the only authentic religion. Religion is simply 
what you happen to *believe*. David clearly adheres to a religion of Optimism 
as he calls it. That's fine; I admire this gigantic optimism of his and 
Popper's, it's very inspiring and will yet give birth to a great many new 
insights and discoveries. Just occasionally, one's personal religion does 
something positive for the world like that. Organised religion isn't really 
religion after all - it's a club with rules and creeds and punishments if you 
fall foul of the regulations. That's politics.

Yoga is the science of the East and Science is the Yoga of the West - Someone 
or Other.

Kim Jones





On 02/10/2011, at 8:37 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

 In David Deutsch's Beginning of Infinity chapter 8, he criticises
 Schmidhuber's Great Programmer idea by saying that it is giving up on
 explanation in science, as the hardware on which the Great Program
 runs is unknowable.

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