RE: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

2008-11-19 Thread David E. Guinn

With respect to the discriminatory sex based issue raised by Eugene, I am 
curious as to how we can judge discrimination as applied to Shari'a.  For 
example, everyone complains about the Islamic standard that women receive one 
half of what their male siblings receive under inheritance.  What is not 
discussed is that Shari'a also imposes an affirmative duty to support those 
same female siblings on the male.  The woman takes her inheritance free and 
clear.  The male, no matter how large or small the inheritance, does not.  
Should the law judge this trade off of benefits and obligations as mutually 
discriminatory and enforce neither?  What if the Islamic courts enforce only 
one of the two obligations?  (Many Western feminists tend to complain that 
favoring the men only is the case in practice.)

David




David E. Guinn, JD, PhD 


Recent Publications Available from SSRN at


http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





Subject: RE: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?
Date: Wed, 19 Nov 2008 10:38:53 -0800
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu








I'm inclined to say that this is 
exactly right.  In fact, the Court's church property and church government 
cases suggest that religious arbitration is the only permissible mode 
for resolving those cases that require interpretation of religious 
doctrine.  And U.S. law has certainly coexisted for decades, if not longer, 
with religious arbitration by Beth Dins, Christian arbitration bodies, and a 
smaller number of Islamic arbitration bodies.
 
I was curious, though, about two 
related questions:  (1)  Does Jewish, Muslim, or 
Christian religious law, as interpreted by at least some prominent arbitral 
bodies, set up rules that are either substantively (e.g., men are favored over 
women in divorce settlements, or vice versa) or procedurally (e.g., male 
witnesses are treated as more credible than female witnesses, or religiously 
orthodox witnesses are treated as more credible than apostate witnesses) 
discriminatory based on sex, religion, or ethnicity?  (2)  Is there a 
generally applicable principle of arbitration law (both religious and secular) 
that declares arbitration awards to be against public policy if they are based 
on similarly discriminatory rules?
 
It may well be that we shouldn't 
have such a generally applicable principle of arbitration law, because parties 
should be free to waive their nondiscrimination rights, at least in certain 
kinds of contexts.  But if there such a generally applicable principle, and 
some religious arbitral decisions do indeed tend to involve the application of 
discriminatory rules, then presumably those decisions would be unenforceable 
unless some religious exemption is granted from the arbitration law 
principle.
 
Eugene
 
Vance Koven writes:
 
We've 
  discussed this a bit on the list before, but I don't see why in principle 
  religious courts should not be treated pretty much as commercial arbitration 
  is: as a consensual alternative to the state legal system (with enforcement 
  permissible through the national courts where required). In all such cases, 
  the national legal system provides an umbrella of protections, including 
among 
  other things the necessity for consent and honesty in obtaining the agreement 
  by which the parties submit to the alternative jurisdiction. 

It should 
  not be an objection in most instances that the substantive rights of the 
  parties differ from the norms of the secular courts. There are very few 
  rights, even constitutional ones, the exercise of which in particular 
  circumstances cannot be waived. For example, people waive their free speech 
  rights in private contexts all the time (think of non-disparagement clauses 
  and even confidentiality agreements, including those attached to litigation 
  settlement agreements); they waive statutory rights such as nondiscrimination 
  rights and antitrust rights; and so on. Some things cannot be waived, such as 
  one's right to be free as opposed to enslaved, but of course this is 
  understood to be a matter of the perpetuity of the arrangement--any 
employment 
  agreement restricts one's freedom of action to an extent--and the mechanism 
  for enforcement (prohibition of contrary employment rather than specific 
  performance). One also is restricted in waiving rights of third parties (e.g. 
  one's children), which might create some issues under religious law. Still, 
  the general principle ought to be that as to the consenting party an 
agreement 
  to refer most matters to religious courts ought to be upheld and enforced by 
  the secular courts.

I frankly don't see what Matthew or Luke (or Mark 
  or John, for that matter) have to say on the matters quoted below have to do 
  with the subject.

Vance

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FW: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

2008-11-19 Thread David E. Guinn









The European Court, in claiming incompatibility with the rule of law (an 
extraordinarily amorphous term), is, of course, ignoring the example of Israel, 
India and Indonesia who all allow the coexistence of multiple jurisdictions.  
Are they all examples of rule of law-less domains?

David




David E. Guinn, JD, PhD 


Recent Publications Available from SSRN at


http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?
Date: Wed, 19 Nov 2008 20:52:31 +










The issue of Shar'ia courts in 
the United Kingdom is, of course, primarily a political question.  The 
'headlines' are no more than the common use of arbitration (Arbitration Act 
1996) for dispute resolution.  In the United Kingdom, as noted, there 
is only so far that one can go to 'surrender' constitutional 
rights.
 
The interesting position is that of the 
government which wishes to promote 'false jurisdictions' leaving many Islamic 
women unaware of their rights. It is unlikely secular courts will face any 
challenges to enforcement.   The creation of separate communities is 
unlikely to be healthy, which is the object of the policy.  In normal 
times, this might be a sign of a pluralistic society, but not without 
a concept of the 'common good'.  At 
the core of this debate is the basic need of a liberal State to re-produce 
itself, namely to produce liberal citizens with common values. 

 
In 1995, the 
Turkish Constitutional court dissolved Refah, the government party, for 
straying 
from secularism, which is the guiding doctrine of the Turkish State. In the 
subsequent case of Refah Partis v. Turkey, the European Court held 
that the establishment of a plurality of legal systems based on religious 
beliefs is incompatible with the rule of law. 
 
Paul
 
Paul 
Diamond
Chambers of Paul Diamond
PO Box 1041 Barton
Cambridge CB23 7WY 
United Kingdom
01223 264544
www.pauldiamond.com
 

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Douglas 
  Laycock 
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Wednesday, November 19, 2008 7:37 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Can religious and secular 
  courts exist in the same nation?
  

  This argument that voluntary submission to religious courts is like 
  voluntary submission to arbitration has a lot of force.  And it can be 
  carried a step further:  arguably it discrimiantes against religion if 
  agreements to secular arbitration are enforceable and agreements to religious 
  arbitration are not.

  As against the discrimination argument, there is the response that secular 
  arbitrators at least purport to be enforcing the law of the land (even though 
  they often create ad hoc compromises in practice); religious courts make no 
  pretense of enforcing secular law.  I'm not sure how far that 
carries.

  The more serious argument against civil enforcement of judgments of 
  religious courts is that the right to change one's religion is fundamental to 
  free exericse.  If I sign a commercial arbitration agreement at time 1, 
  and object to arbitration at time 2, when a dispute has actually arisen, I am 
  out of luck.  But if I agree to submit to a religious court at time 1 
  (say, when I get married), and I object to the religious court at time 2, 
when 
  a dispute has actually arisen, I may have abandoned the faith in the 
meantime; 
  I have at the very least changed my view of religious courts.  If 
  government holds me to my time 1 agreement, government is preventing me from 
  changing my religion.

  This is not a problem if both parties agree, after the dispute has arisen, 
  to go to the religious court, and if both parties abide by the judgment.  
  That is just a mechanism for voluntary dispute resolution; the government is 
  not involved.  But even in this situation, if the religious court grants 
  a divorce that the state recognizes, we have gone beyond voluntary dispute 
  resolution.  

   

   

  Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

  
 I'm inclined to say that this is exactly right.  In fact, 
  the
 Court's church property and church government cases suggest 
  that
 religious arbitration is the only permissible mode for resolving 
  those
 cases that require interpretation of religious doctrine.  
  And U.S. law
 has certainly coexisted for decades, if not longer, with 
  religious
 arbitration by Beth Dins, Christian arbitration bodies, and 
  a smaller
 number of Islamic arbitration bodies.

  
 I was curious, though, about two related questions:  
  (1)  Does
 Jewish, Muslim, or Christian religious law, as 
  interpreted by at least
 some prominent arbitral bodies, set up rules 
  that are either
 substantively (e.g., men are favored over women in 
  divorce settlements,
 or vice versa) or procedurally (e.g., male 
  witnesses are treated as more
 credible than female witnesses, or 
  religiously orthodox witnesses

RE: Mark of the beast lawsuit by Amish

2008-11-14 Thread David E. Guinn

The mark of the beast is drawn from Revelations 13:16-18 and refers to 
Satan's mark (666).  





David E. Guinn, JD, PhD 


Recent Publications Available from SSRN at


http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: Mark of the beast lawsuit by Amish
Date: Fri, 14 Nov 2008 11:23:10 -0800
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu


Getting my grammatical pedant on:  Shouldn't that be mark in (or on) the 
beast? 
As for references to Smith and Twombly, I'm in the utter dark.  I'm just a 
photographer, after all. 
On Nov 14, 2008, at Fri, Nov 14,  11:10 AM, Marc Stern wrote: Plainly the use 
of id's on cattle is a mark of the beast. I am  puzzled by Professor Masinter's 
s reference to Twombly-i don't see the relevance of the reference. Marc Stern
   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Marty Lederman
Sent: Friday, November 14, 2008 2:03 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Mark of the beast lawsuit by Amish

 Complaint:

http://blog.wired.com/27bstroke6/files/satanfiling.pdf

DOJ Brief:

http://blog.wired.com/27bstroke6/files/beast.pdf




 On Fri, Nov 14, 2008 at 11:34 AM, Jean Dudley [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 http://blog.wired.com/27bstroke6/2008/11/bush-administra.html

 From   the Wired article:  The Amish farmers claimMichigan
regulations requiring them to use radio frequency   identification
devices on their cattle constitutes some form of a 'mark of   the
beast' and/or represents an infringement of their 'dominion   over
cattle and all living things' in violation of their   fundamental
religious beliefs, according to the farmers' lawsuit filed   in
September in U.S. District Court for the District of   Columbia.

Thoughts?

Jean
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RE: 130 Muslim workers fired over unauthorized breaks during Ramadan

2008-09-12 Thread David E. Guinn
I think one problem you run into is that breaking the fast is an act with 
significant religious and cultural meaning.  I don't know if it can be 
characterised as a religious rite -- but it is very, very close to one if not.  
While taking an energy bar or water meets the physical need, that would be like 
substituting water and an energy bar for the wine and bread at a seder.





David E. Guinn, JD, PhD 


Recent Publications Available from SSRN at


http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608



Subject: RE: 130 Muslim workers fired over unauthorized breaks during Ramadan
Date: Fri, 12 Sep 2008 12:21:30 -0700
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu








I appreciate Doug's practical point, but 
I was wondering whether this is enough to make the breaking of the fast an 
aspect[] of religious observance and practice.
 
One more question:  Assume that Swift doesn't offer a 
break, but doesn't object to people's having an energy bar or drinking a bottle 
of water at their work station.  (Perhaps that's not allowed when people 
are engaged in food processing, but assume that it is, or assume that people 
can 
hit the restroom for a minute or two whenever they need to, so they can catch a 
very quick bite on a minute-long break.)  Would that suffice as an 
accommodation (or perhaps even make it unnecessary to have an accommodation, if 
there's no prohibition on such munching)?  Obviously this isn't as 
appealing to many people as a break during which they could eat a regular 
meal.  But if the argument is that the fast-breaking is needed to avoid 
health problems or serious discomfort, wouldn't the energy bar and the bottle 
of 
water suffice for that purpose?

Eugene



  
  
  From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas 
  Laycock
Sent: Friday, September 12, 2008 11:46 AM
To: 
  religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: 130 Muslim workers fired 
  over unauthorized breaks during Ramadan


  
  So if they have already passed the point where they have a mandatory lunch 
  break under federal law, even though none of them eat, a break at sunset 
would 
  be a second break, with more than de minimis cost, and therefore not required 
  under TWA v. Hardison, the leading case on Title VII accommodations.  
  Unfortunate, but possibly true.
  But if the shifts in this plant are anything like the US norm, that's not a 
  problem.  The usual shifts are 8-4, 4-midnight, and midnight to 8, 
  or sometimes minor variations of that, such as 7-3, 3-11, and 11-7.  
  There's nothing magic about that, but it puts one shift on people's normal 
  daytime schedule.  Assuming the shifts at Swift are something like that, 
  then workers at sunset would be on roughly a 4-12 shift, and would be asking 
  for an early lunch break rather than a federally forbidden late one.
  Eugene asks a good question, but sunset in LA this time of year is nearly 
  13 hours after sunrise.  The need for food after a 13-hour fast is 
  sufficiently intense that there's not much difference between the need for 
  food at sunset and the religious need to keep the fast.  A chance to 
  eat at sunset is a reasoanble accommodation of the religious need to fast 
  until sunset.
  Quoting Alan Leigh Armstrong 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Swift also has a federal 
  law and perhaps a state law problem.

 Federal law requires that 
  employees who work a shift longer than 6
 hours must take a 30 minute 
  lunch break. The lunch break cannot be
 more than 5 hours 30 minutes 
  after they start. (I ran into this many
 years ago when i worked for 
  the Navy. Some people would come in early
 saturday, work 8 hours then 
  go home. They were told they had to take
 a 30 minute lunch 
  break.
 Under federal law, they can work a 6 hour shift without a lunch 
  break.

 Does Swift let the employees take 2 30 minute breaks? 
  What does that
 do to production?
 Can Swift put them all on 
  swing or graveyard shift so they are at
 work during the night and 
  avoid the problem of lunch between sunrise
 and sunset?

 
  When reasonable accommodation hits federal law, which 
  prevails?

 Alan Armstrong
 Huntington Beach 
  California

 On Sep 11, 2008, at 12:03 PM, Douglas Laycock 
  wrote:

 A typically garbled press account, with paragraphs 
  that sound like
 they're from two different disputes.  So it's 
  hard to tell what's
 really going on.

 But 
  if the dispute is really just about a lunch break at sunset,
 it's 
  a pretty straightforward Title VII accommodation claim.  Hard
 
  to imagine what Swift's undue hardship would be if that standard
 
  were taken seriously.  Hard to imagine even what a de minimis
 
  hardship would be if nearly the whole work force is Muslim.  
  If
 there are also lots of non-Muslim workers, Swift might claim it 
  has
 scheduling problems.  It sounds like at this point they 
  made no
 effort to accommodate and don't give a damn, but of course

FW: Mass self-flaggelation for the Muslim holiday Ashura

2008-01-25 Thread David E. Guinn
From a colleague.

-Original Message-
From: Hamoudi, Haider [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] 

_

Just a few points on this, from someone who would know very little about the
New York law aspect of it, but a reasonable amount concerning the Islamic
law side.

First, the practice of bloodletting during Ashura is not so much Islamic
as Shi'i Islamic, and secondly, and more importantly, if the police did
intervene, there are not an insignificant number of Shi'is who would
probably regard that decision rather favorably.  More moderate Shi'a, and
more educated Shi'a, tend to view these practices as misguided in the best
case, and an embarrassment in the worst case.  Even rather conservative
voices such as the late Ahmed Al-Waeli, the preacher whose voice almost
symbolizes the Ashura lamentations in the modern era given how popular and
widespread his rendition of the event was throughout the Shi'i world, spoke
out rather forcefully against bloody commemorations in Hyde Park, dismissing
them as barbaric and outdated.  When the police came down rather hard on one
such event in Detroit last year, the general reaction among the Shi'is I
knew was rather sympathetic to the police.  (In that case, it wasn't so much
a decision by the police to end the commemoration, they didn't even know
there was one, as to respond to what looked like some sort of serious
problem at a mosque they thought must have been attacked---men without their
shirts off with blood on their backs crying suggested to them something of
this sort).  I believe the same mosque still does these things in Detroit
but in an enclosed area far from the view of everyone else, including the
rest of the Shi'is commemorating, which I think does tend to suggest some
level of Shi'i community, if not disapproval, then equivocation as to the
matter.  The community told them to take it indoors.

Moreover, police are not generally viewed as hostilely in Muslim communities
as, say, the FBI or the military.  I don't mean to suggest they are welcomed
as heroes by all, but that when Muslims join police forces, and they do,
they neither hide it from other members of the community nor do they seem to
feel the need to engage in excessive apologetics over it.  The biggest
problem I find with conservative Muslims who immigrate when they first enter
is that they call 911 too often, not too little (because they assume the
police have assumed the role their uncle once had when he negotiated their
disputes).  The Shi'i jurists in particular have made sharp distinctions
between joining a police force, which they consider generally okay, and
joining the US army, where they generally do not.

Of course, a crackdown could backfire too, as an example of some sort of
perceived persecution.  After all, jurists haven't banned these things,
making many believe they are acceptable and therefore they have a right to
do them.  And even if the police aren't viewed as necessarily hostile, still
when interfering with a commemoration resentments can be stirred.
Nevertheless, I'm not convinced that the reaction to police intervention to
something Shi'is are of two minds about would be necessarily negative so
long as it was limited and intelligent (ie through consulations and
explained, as opposed to an unannounced mosque raid which would surely annoy
if not enrage just about everyone).

For those interested in these subjects, I do run a blog on Islamic law, as
per below.


Haider Ala Hamoudi
Assistant Professor of Law
University of Pittsburgh School of Law
3900 Forbes Avenue
Pittsburgh, PA 15260
(412) 624-1055
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

You can access my papers on SSRN at
http://papers.ssrn.com/author=641155

You can access my papers on Bepress at
http://works.bepress.com/haider_ala_hamoudi/

Check out my blog at
http://muslimlawprof.org/





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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-08 Thread David E. Guinn
Starting from a grounding within a particular belief system simply does
not entail being committed to an ideology without circularity. In that
case ideology simply loses any analytic or political significance and
should be abandoned.



I have no idea what this means.  My dictionary labels an ideology as a
systematic body of concepts.the integrated assertions, theories, and aims
that constitute a sociopolitical program. (Websters New Collegiate).  I do
not see how either the neo-atheists or people of faith fail to fit within
this definition.  They not only start from the premises contained in their
respective ideologies, they advocate on their behalf.

 

In terms of religious freedom, it is easy to label religions as ideologies-I
simply stress that there are many comparable secular ideologies and, as Doug
Laycock and Michael McConnell among so many others on this list have argued,
favoring the secularist position often advanced by the neoatheists is
discriminatory.

 

David

 

David E. Guinn, JD, PhD

 

Recent Publications Available from SSRN at 
 http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608

  _  

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Saturday, September 08, 2007 9:44 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

 

In a message dated 9/7/2007 11:51:59 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

My only concern is to point out that while everyone recognizes that theists
start from a grounding within a particular belief system, so too do
atheists.

Starting from a grounding within a particular belief system simply
does not entail being committed to an ideology without circularity. In
that case ideology simply loses any analytic or political significance and
should be abandoned.

Bobby
  
Robert Justin Lipkin
Professor of Law
Widener University School of Law
Delaware

Ratio Juris, Contributor:  http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/
http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/ 
Essentially Contested America, Editor-In-Chief
http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/





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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-07 Thread David E. Guinn
I believe this distinction to be incorrect.  Both atheists and evangelicals 
adhere to particular ideological perspectives.  The atheist, as you posit him 
or her, does not believe in god because god cannot be proven by empirical means 
(i.e. sufficient evidence.)  True.  But that assumes that science can either 
prove or disprove god.  That is like saying science (in the hard, empirical, 
lab-experimental sense) can prove or disprove love or morality or some other 
complex social phenomena.  It is not enough to say that the default in the 
absence of proof must be disbelief.  At best it should be agnosticism at 
something that is posited to exist outside of the materialist paradigm.  That 
is not the position atheists like Dawkins take.
 
I should add, my posts are not directed at an abstract, theoretical atheist, 
but rather at the public discourse surounding the neo-atheists (Harris, 
Dawkins, etc.)
 
David


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]: Fri, 7 Sep 2007 07:57:10 -0400Subject: Re: Mormon 
Student, Justice, ACLU Join UpTo: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

David E. Guinn wrote:
 
Third, to say atheists are not evangelical ignores the passion and furor around 
Harris, Dawkins, Hutchens et. al. and the best selling books they have written.
 
 
The distinction between evangelism and atheism should not be collapsed 
because both exhibit passion or that there is furor surrounding the work of 
some atheists.  The distinction is that the former eschews the kind of evidence 
that everyone, including evangelicals, rely upon in everyday dealings, personal 
and professional relationships, business, politics, and of course science. A 
principled, thoughtful atheist will renounce his or her position when 
confronted with sufficient evidence.  Evangelicals relying upon faith will not, 
or at least they claim that they will not because nothing for them can 
constitute sufficient evidence.
 
Bobby  Robert Justin LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of 
LawDelawareRatio Juris, Contributor:  
http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/Essentially Contested America, Editor-In-Chief 
http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/


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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-07 Thread David E. Guinn
I do not think I am going outside of the rigors of a theoretical understanding. 
 The very term atheism (as an -ism) definitionaly acknowledges its 
ideological commitment.  My only concern is to point out that while everyone 
recognizes that theists start from a grounding within a particular belief 
system, so too do atheists.
 
Moreover, as I said before, atheism is a belief system that makes a affirmative 
commitment -- i.e. that god does not exist -- an assertion that stands outside 
the epistemological grounding of the empirical belief itself.  To me that 
clearly demonstrates the ideological nature of the belief.
 
As an agnostic, I acknowledge the virtues of the empirical world view.  I 
simply recognize that it has limits and cannot answer every question asked.  It 
cannot prove or disprove the existence of a first cause or what happened before 
the big bang (as presently understood--though it might disprove current 
understandings).David


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]: Fri, 7 Sep 2007 10:21:17 -0400Subject: Re: Mormon 
Student, Justice, ACLU Join UpTo: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu



In a message dated 9/7/2007 9:33:17 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time, [EMAIL 
PROTECTED] writes:
Both atheists and evangelicals adhere to particular ideological perspectives.
While this may be true of particular individuals, it's far from an 
accurate account of the concepts--evangelical and atheist--themselves. 
Moreover, we will never understand the actual debates in public discourse 
without having some familiarity with the theoretical sense of these terms. 
And so theoretical analysis is inescapable.  In that regard, I think it is a 
radical mistake to use the term ideological to capture what might be term a 
pragmatic atheist. Sure everyone has their starting points, but all starting 
points are not equal and only some are ideological. If ideology is used to 
depict all starting points then the word loses any analytic punch and should be 
abandoned. I think the mistake derives from thinking that a passionate devotion 
to one's position is the same thing as not needing reasons or embracing faith 
to substantiate one's position. Faith and a commitment to the proposition 
that God works in mysterious ways when used by a theist to reject any 
ordinary attempt--ordinary in the sense of the way we reason about 
non-religious matter--to refute or criticize his or her position reveals or at 
least suggests that pragmatic reasoning has come to an end. Don't get me wrong! 
Many atheists are probably driven by faith. But that is an inessential 
feature of explicating the meaning of atheism.  And further when a theist 
contends that reason guides his or her commitment to God that commitment, in my 
view, is equal to the pragmatic atheist's commitment to the position that there 
is no God. Neither are ideological. Both are driven by reason. In this case, 
reason not God governs. It's unclear whether the Court needs the distinction 
between evangelism in its religion-clause jurisprudence, but I think it's 
probably true that the distinction is not used by the Court.
 
  Bobby  Robert Justin LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School 
of LawDelawareRatio Juris, Contributor:  
http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/Essentially Contested America, Editor-In-Chief 
http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/


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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-06 Thread David E. Guinn
Three points:

My citation of Paul and Calvin is not offered as a form of religious
revelation (i.e. scripture) but simply to reflect the perspective of
believers which you appear unable to comprehend.  As someone who is NOT a
believer myself, I nonetheless find it helpful to try to understand the
perspectives of people of faith.

Second, there is a distinction between rational - which includes the
concepts of logically consistent, and coherent through the application of
reason to basic concepts and principles and empirical -- which suggests
grounding in a materialist ideology.  You seem to equate rational with
empirical.

Third, to say atheists are not evangelical ignores the passion and furor
around Harris, Dawkins, Hutchens et. al. and the best selling books they
have written.

David E. Guinn, JD, PhD
 
Recent Publications Available from SSRN at 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608

-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Susan Freiman
Sent: Thursday, September 06, 2007 5:24 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

I don't see answering whether belief is a question of choice by 
reference to a religious belief, which is the same as referring to 
Calvin and Paul for the answer.  And if theology grows out of the 
belief, that doesn't mean the theology is not irrational, it means only 
that it is logically consistent if the validity of the premise (belief) 
is conceded.  Nor is faith more rational if one values it for touching 
something deeper and more profound.  Deeper that what?  More profound 
than what?  And how do we know?

Atheists aren't trying to persuade anyone of anything.  Most are too 
laid back to care what others believe, although they try to teach others 
the difference between rational, evidence-based conclusions and beliefs 
which are not proved.

One can choose to look for proof or not, and to be guided by success in 
finding proof.

Susan 



David E. Guinn wrote:
 It does seem to me that one of the most compelling arguments in favor 
 of religious freedom is the recognition that religious belief is not 
 simply a matter of choice--like deciding whether or not to join a 
 fraternity or sorority.  As Calvin and Paul suggested, it is a product 
 of grace.  That does not mean that people of faith are irrational with 
 respect to the theology that grows out of that belief, it does mean 
 that faith touches something much deeper and more profound.
  
 That said, I think the evangelical fervor displayed by the 
 neo-atheists (as E.J. Dionne so aptly labels them) demonstrates that 
 this religious connection can attach to a materialist ideology as well 
 as a transcendentalist one.  The mistake Harris and company make is in 
 thinking that their choices are purely rational and that everyone 
 should believe exactly as they do.  (Sounds like some religious 
 fundamentalists to me.)
  
 In this sense, I think the issue does touch significantly on religion 
 and law.
  
 David




 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Date: Wed, 5 Sep 2007 08:58:10 -0400
 Subject: Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up
 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

 I'd welcome an on-list discussion of this matter, with
 Eugene's permission of course.

 Bobby
   
 Robert Justin Lipkin
 Professor of Law
 Widener University School of Law
 Delaware
 */
 /**/Ratio Juris/*, Contributor:  http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/*/*/
 Essentially Contested America/*, *Editor-In-Chief
 *http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org//*





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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-05 Thread David E. Guinn
It does seem to me that one of the most compelling arguments in favor of 
religious freedom is the recognition that religious belief is not simply a 
matter of choice--like deciding whether or not to join a fraternity or 
sorority.  As Calvin and Paul suggested, it is a product of grace.  That does 
not mean that people of faith are irrational with respect to the theology that 
grows out of that belief, it does mean that faith touches something much deeper 
and more profound.
 
That said, I think the evangelical fervor displayed by the neo-atheists (as 
E.J. Dionne so aptly labels them) demonstrates that this religious connection 
can attach to a materialist ideology as well as a transcendentalist one.  The 
mistake Harris and company make is in thinking that their choices are purely 
rational and that everyone should believe exactly as they do.  (Sounds like 
some religious fundamentalists to me.)
 
In this sense, I think the issue does touch significantly on religion and law.
 
David


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]: Wed, 5 Sep 2007 08:58:10 -0400Subject: Re: Mormon 
Student, Justice, ACLU Join UpTo: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

I'd welcome an on-list discussion of this matter, with Eugene's 
permission of course.Bobby  Robert Justin LipkinProfessor of LawWidener 
University School of LawDelawareRatio Juris, Contributor:  
http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/Essentially Contested America, Editor-In-Chief 
http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/


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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-05 Thread David E. Guinn
My apologies to Paul and the list for any confusion caused by my post.  I had 
no intention of accusing Paul of claiming people of faith were irrational.  I 
had assumed that Bobby's post had opened a new thread on choice and religious 
freedom which I was attempting to address.  My comments were about the approach 
taken by Harris and Dawkins (et. al.)  My mistake was in not changing the 
subject line. David

 Date: Wed, 5 Sep 2007 10:05:34 -0400 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To: [EMAIL 
 PROTECTED]; religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu Subject: RE: Mormon Student, 
 Justice, ACLU Join Up  The choice issue, at least for me, is not about 
 being a neo-atheist, since I am not one. The issues here is seems is that 
 the student does have choice to not do the mission. As I understand it not 
 all Mormons do; and no one has answered the question as to the timing of 
 the mission. MUST he do it at a certain age. If not, then there is a great 
 deal of choice. He can choose to go to college and then do the mission. He 
 can choose to do the mission and then go to college. I assume, for example, 
 that Mormons attend West Point or the other service academies and that they 
 do not leave school for a year to do a mission.  Try this, suppose instead 
 of being in regular university the student was at a service academy and 
 therefore a member of the military -- which is a choice. And then asks for a 
 leave to go on a mission. Suppose he is not a student but enlists at 17 or 
 18, serves until 19 and as he is about to be shipped to Iraq says I need a 
 leave for a year. I don't think he gets it and I don't see how that would be 
 a necessary accommodation of religious practice.  I have never suggested 
 people are irrational in their belief and I find David's suggestion that I 
 have to be way over the top.   Paul Finkelman President William McKinley 
 Distinguished Professor of Law and Public Policy Albany Law School 80 New 
 Scotland Avenue Albany, New York 12208-3494  518-445-3386  [EMAIL 
 PROTECTED]  [EMAIL PROTECTED] 09/05/07 9:41 AM  It does seem to me 
 that one of the most compelling arguments in favor of religious freedom is 
 the recognition that religious belief is not simply a matter of choice--like 
 deciding whether or not to join a fraternity or sorority. As Calvin and Paul 
 suggested, it is a product of grace. That does not mean that people of faith 
 are irrational with respect to the theology that grows out of that belief, 
 it does mean that faith touches something much deeper and more profound.  
 That said, I think the evangelical fervor displayed by the neo-atheists (as 
 E.J. Dionne so aptly labels them) demonstrates that this religious 
 connection can attach to a materialist ideology as well as a 
 transcendentalist one. The mistake Harris and company make is in thinking 
 that their choices are purely rational and that everyone should believe 
 exactly as they do. (Sounds like some religious fundamentalists to me.)  
 In this sense, I think the issue does touch significantly on religion and 
 law.  David   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]: Wed, 5 Sep 2007 08:58:10 
 -0400Subject: Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join UpTo: 
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu  I'd welcome an on-list discussion of this 
 matter, with Eugene's permission of course.Bobby Robert Justin 
 LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of LawDelawareRatio Juris, 
 Contributor:  http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/Essentially Contested America, 
 Editor-In-Chief http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/   Get a sneak 
 peek of the all-new AOL.com. 
 _ Discover 
 the new Windows Vista 
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RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-08-30 Thread David E. Guinn
Isn't this analogous to the conscientious objector cases where sincere 
commitment should determine the exemption?  David

 Subject: RE: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up Date: Thu, 30 Aug 2007 
 10:49:38 -0700 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu  A 
 quick question: Say the Mormon student wins, on a Sherbert-like rationale. 
 Another student wants a similar exemption on the grounds that he feels a 
 religious motivation to take two years off to meditate, or to make money to 
 help support his family, or to fulfill what he sees as God's command to step 
 back from formal education and take time to find the meaning of life. Assume 
 that the student's religious motivation for this is found to be sincere.   
 I take it that he'd have to be treated the same as the Mormon, right? I'm 
 not saying that this is a particularly horrible result, but I just wanted to 
 explore what the result would end up being.  Eugene 
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RE: Lofton / Falwell Not Preacher He SHOULD Have Been

2007-05-17 Thread David E. Guinn
I tend to agree with Eugene that the initial posts on this thread were
clearly off topic and represented personal animous or favor rather than
promoting an informative discussion.  Interestingly, subsequent efforts to
justify those posts have been far more substantive and useful.

In considering the role of the individual in the law of religious freedom, I
don't think one can draw a single dichotomous line.  Issues fit more within
concentric circles of relevance.  For example, in evaluating the Clinton
impeachment, it seems to me that Clinton's behavior with Monica, while
morally objectionable not only in terms of infidelity but in an abuse of
position and power over a young person who was a White House intern and
relevant to whether or not I might want to vote for him, was largely
irrelevant to an inquiry about the law of impeachment.  His lying to the
Grand Jury, the crime he was charged with was relevant, if not convincing.
Similarly, Gingrich's extra-marital affair might be relevant in making
judgments about his character and intentions, it similarly tells me little
to nothing about the law of impeachment.

With respect to Falwell, his attitude towards the state, the role of
religion in law and how he personally acted in relation to those issues
(whether as an advocate or as a supplicant for government assistance) are
clearly important for this list.  His private behavior to convert an
individual that never involved recourse to law or government seems
irrelevant--unless the person making the assertion can make a connection
that I fail to see.

David

-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Steven Shiffrin
Sent: Thursday, May 17, 2007 1:58 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Lofton / Falwell Not Preacher He SHOULD Have Been

One of the arguments for avoiding tight connections between church and 
state is that churches are corrupted by their entanglements with the 
state. The question whether religious leaders have been coopted is 
relevant to that discussion and seems clearly on topic. David Kuo, for 
example, in his recent book discusses how brushes with power affected 
Billy Graham and Jerry Falwell. From his perspective, this is a 
discussion of sin (or not), but it is surely on topic.

In addition, the religion clauses are embedded in a culture and the 
nature of that culture has a bearing on how the clauses are interpreted. 
Jerry Falwell played a role in the development of our religious culture. 
His involvement affected the understanding of what the relations between 
church and state should be, I would guess, for millions of people 
including many public officials charged with interpreting the 
Constitution. Admitting that it is possible to make remarks about 
Falwell that are marginally important, I tend to agree with Bobby.
Steve


Volokh, Eugene wrote:

   A discussion of Falwell's role in the development of Religion
Clauses law is surely entirely on-topic.  A discussion of whether
Falwell acted in sad or sinful ways under one's own theological view
(however sincere or well-reasoned) of what behavior is sad or sinful
strikes me as no more on-topic than a discussion of whether, say,
Justices Brennan or Blackmun acted in sad or sinful ways.

   Eugene

  

[EMAIL PROTECTED] 05/17/07 9:01 AM 
  

 
 
In a message dated 5/16/2007 9:59:21 P.M. Eastern Daylight 
Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

Please remember that this is a list devoted to the law of 
government and religion -- not on whether some people 
(recently dead or  otherwise) acted in sad or sinful ways, 
except insofar as that pretty  closely connects to the law of 
government and religion.
 




I am incredulous  that an open  discussion of one of 
the most important operatives in  religion and 
constitutionalism in the last three decades should be 
inappropriate  on this List. Of course, this is Eugene's List 
and therefore I will respect his  wishes. But I could not 
disagree more with his sense of relevance or  appropriateness 
in this matter.
 
Bobby

Robert Justin Lipkin
Professor of Law
Widener  University School of Law
Delaware

Ratio  Juris
, Contributor: _  http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/_
(http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/)
Essentially Contested  America, Editor: 
_http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/_
(http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/) 



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Re: Paid days off for religious holidays

2007-05-04 Thread David E. Guinn
On first reading, the distinctions do appear troubling and for a government 
developing a policy on this ground, it would appear much more appropriate 
and non-discriminatory to create a special 3 day personal day allowance that 
included an absolute right by the individual to take those days on 
designated religious holidays.  However, one point that is interesting here 
is that since this is in a collective bargaining agreement, it presumably 
arose through a demand by the employees bargaining unit.  This doesn't seem 
like a proposal the government-employer would come up with on its own.  So: 
does this make this a private transaction?  If not, what responsibility does 
the union have?



David E. Guinn JD, PhD

Recent Publications Available from SSRN at
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





- Original Message - 
From: Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thursday, May 03, 2007 5:29 PM
Subject: Paid days off for religious holidays


Troy v. City of Lynn School Dep't, 2007 WL 1289409 (Mass. Comm'n Against
Disc. Apr. 18), holds that a collective bargaining agreement that gave
certain Jewish, Greek Orthodox, and Russian Orthodox administrators
their religious holidays off with pay was religiously discriminatory
against a Catholic administrator who wanted Holy Thursday and Ascension
Thursday off.

Jews got three days off for Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur.  Greek and
Russian Orthodox got one day off for Orthodox Good Friday.  Everyone got
Christmas and Good Friday off.  This, the Commission held, was
discriminatory:  Respondent's refusal, pursuant to the parties' CBA, to
grant Complainant paid leave for Holy Thursday and Ascension Thursday,
while granting paid leave to members of the Jewish faith for Rosh
Hashanah and Yom Kippur, and granting paid leave to members of the Greek
Orthodox and Russian Orthodox faiths for Good Friday, raises a
reasonable inference of discrimination.  At the second stage of proof
where indirect evidence is concerned, Respondent has not come forward
with a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for the disparate treatment
of members of different faiths.  See also Fleming v. Boston Public
Library, 22 MDLR 8 (2000).

1.  Say the Commission reasoned that many Jews feel a religious
obligation to take Rosh Hashanah and especially Yom Kippur off, and
Christians feel the same as to their Good Friday (recall that everyone
gets Heterodox Good Friday off, and Orthodox Christians get Orthodox
Good Friday off), but most Catholics do not feel the same obligation as
to Holy Thursday and Ascension Thursday.  Should that justify the
disparate treatment?  Should it be enough that this particular Catholic
claim a felt obligation to take those days off?  Or should that not even
be relevant, given that members of other religions apparently get their
holidays off without any need to claim a felt obligation not to work on
those days?

2.  Say an irreligious administrator now complains, on the grounds that
some people get 3 days off -- with pay -- because of their religion,
others get 1 day off, others get 2 days off, but he gets no days off
because he is not religious.

a.  Would that scheme violate state or federal antidiscrimination law,
as applied to the atheist?  (Which days should the irreligious
administrator be entitled to claim, if he is entitled to claim some
days?)

3.  Would that scheme violate the Establishment Clause, on the grounds
given in the Texas Monthly v. Bullock plurality -- that it constitutes a
financial subsidy to religious practice, and that it's not necessary to
alleviate a government-imposed burden on religious practice (since a
day-off-without-pay accommodation would do that just fine)?

Eugene
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Re: Religious exemptions for the non-religious

2007-03-01 Thread David E. Guinn
I must admit having some sympathy for Perry's position.

In my book FAITH ON TRIAL, I advanced the following argument supporting an 
expansive protection of religious exceptions that would justify attention to 
traditional religions:

1 Law regulates behavior based upon social utilitarian grounds (e.g taking 
drugs is bad for you and society.)

2  We reject pure claims of conscience as being anarchic (Scalia's each man a 
law unto himself)

3.  Behavior that is compelled by a religious community not only reflects 
religious values, it includes a demonstrated social utility -- that is, the 
behavior is not only endorsed by a group (ergo not an idiosyncratic assessment 
of merit) it must have also contributed to the ongoing viability of that group 
(such as the fact that use of peyote by the NA Church in Smith contributed to a 
community in which there was far less drug abuse than prevalent in the general 
native American population.)

4.  Therefore, the courts can and should incorporate an appreciation of this 
social endorsement under the First Amendment in considering objections.

While I continue to believe in the merits of this argument, I cannot point to 
any court that has agreed with me (outside of the YODER outlier that predated 
by work.)

David E. Guinn JD, PhD
 
Recent Publications Available from SSRN at 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





  - Original Message - 
  From: Perry Dane 
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Thursday, March 01, 2007 11:05 AM
  Subject: Religious exemptions for the non-religious


  Doug Laycock writes that the willingness to treat atheism as a 
religion is very encouraging.

  I agree that, for certain purposes, including rights of expression, 
religious views and anti-religious views need to be treated equally.  

  On the other hand, it has always seemed to me that to extend the idea 
of religion-based exemptions beyond the realm of specifically religious norms 
conflicting with secular law would, in effect, create a universal libertarian 
presumption that no law can be applied against a dissenting individual unless 
that law is supported by a compelling governmental interest.  And that sort of 
universal libertarian presumption just strikes me as implausible and 
inconsistent with our constitutional and legal structure.

  Doug is right that some opponents of religion-based exemptions make 
something like the following argument:

1.  We can't exempt only believers, because that would discriminate against 
nonbelievers.

2.  But we can't exempt nonbelievers, because nonbelief is not a religion.

3.  Therefore, we can't exempt anybody.


  But I think that we should be equally concerned about the following 
argument:

1.  We can't exempt non-believers, because that would create a universal 
libertarian presumption in the law, which is implausible.

2.  But we can't exempt only believers, because that would discriminate 
against nonbelievers.

3.  Therefore, we can't exempt anybody.


  In both cases, the flaw in the reasoning (which Doug agrees is a 
flaw) is the notion that we can't exempt only believers.  Of course we can 
exempt only believers, and there are good, normatively compelling, reasons to 
do so.

  Perry



  ***
  Perry Dane
  Professor of Law

  Rutgers University 
  School of Law  -- Camden 

  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  www.camlaw.rutgers.edu/bio/925/
  www.ssrn.com/author=48596
  ***





--


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Re: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism study group

2007-02-23 Thread David E. Guinn
Sorry, I meant technically in the sense that in popular discourse much has 
been made of the irony of the American Atheist Assoc. and American Humanists 
society have sought and obtained tax exempt status similar to the exemption 
provided traditional religious groups.  A point that atheists have made as a 
badge of equality.  But that doesn't provide legal grounds for equal 
treatment.



- Original Message - 
From: Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 5:39 PM
Subject: RE: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism study group


I'm not sure there's any technically to it -- isn't the tax
exemption for a wide range of nonprofits, including colleges, schools,
advocacy groups (so long as they don't engage in lobbying or
electioneering), and more?


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
David E. Guinn
Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 2:53 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism
study group

True.  And the tax exemption that protects both religious
institutions and the American Humanist and American Atheist
societies is not technically confined to religions..

- Original Message -
From: Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]


Recall that only one Justice, Harlan, took the view that equal
treatment for atheist conscientious objectors was constitutionally
mandated; the plurality relied instead on a (tortured)
interpretation of
the statute.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
 David E. Guinn
 Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 2:41 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Re: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism
 study group

 This doesn't make sense to me.  Assuming that the prison does
 allow meetings for religious groups, then under the selective
 services cases requiring equal protection for atheism or
 other beliefs equivalent to religion would seem to be required.

 As for protecting the publications--that does seem to follow
 the common bias that wants to treat the 1st Amend. as simply
 a free speech amendment--though I agree with you that it is
 incoherent in terms of this case.

 David

 David E. Guinn JD, PhD

 Recent Publications Available from SSRN at
 http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





 - Original Message -
 From: Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 4:28 PM
 Subject: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism
study group


 Any thoughts on this?

 From Kaufman v. Schneiter, 2007 WL 521218 (W.D. Wis. Feb. 15,
 2007):

 Petitioner is an atheist. He contends that prison officials
 have violated his rights under the free exercise clause and
RLUIPA in
 three ways: (1) by refusing to authorize a study group for
inmates who
 have described themselves as atheists, freethinkers, humanists and
 'other' and those who have identified themselves to prison
 officials as
 having no religious preference; (2) by failing to provide petitioner
 with publications about atheism; and (3) by preventing him
 from ordering
 publications about atheism.

 Petitioner has not stated a claim under the free exercise
 clause for one simple reason. He does not allege (nor is it
 possible to
 see how he could plausibly do so) that merely reading books about
 atheism or meeting in a study group with inmates of various
 philosophical bents constitutes the exercise of his
religion, that is
 'the observation of [ ] central religious belief[s] or
practice[s]' of
 atheism. Civil Liberties for Urban Believers, 342 F.3d at 760.
 Therefore, petitioner must be denied leave to proceed on his
 claim that
 respondents Taylor, Hepp and Huibregtse violated his First Amendment
 free exercise rights by refusing to provide him with materials about
 atheism or to authorize a study groups for atheist, humanist and
 freethinking inmates and inmates with no or an 'other' religious
 preference

 In this case, petitioner is not challenging the prison's
 decision to deny atheists the opportunity to meet together
to discuss
 their commonly held religious beliefs. Instead, petitioner
 alleges that
 he asked prison officials to authorize a group for inmates of
 differing
 religious and philosophical persuasions, including inmates with no
 religious preference at all, to meet together to discuss
 their differing
 ideas. Such an activity is more akin to a debate society
 meeting than to
 a group religious practice. Although petitioner might wish to
 share his
 atheist beliefs with others (just as a Christian inmate
might wish to
 evangelize his fellow prisoners), prison officials do not violate
 inmates' free exercise rights when they refuse to permit
gathering of
 inmates

Re: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism study group

2007-02-22 Thread David E. Guinn
This doesn't make sense to me.  Assuming that the prison does allow meetings 
for religious groups, then under the selective services cases requiring 
equal protection for atheism or other beliefs equivalent to religion would 
seem to be required.


As for protecting the publications--that does seem to follow the common bias 
that wants to treat the 1st Amend. as simply a free speech amendment--though 
I agree with you that it is incoherent in terms of this case.


David

David E. Guinn JD, PhD

Recent Publications Available from SSRN at
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





- Original Message - 
From: Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 4:28 PM
Subject: Atheist inmate refused authorization for atheism study group


Any thoughts on this?


From Kaufman v. Schneiter, 2007 WL 521218 (W.D. Wis. Feb. 15,

2007):

Petitioner is an atheist. He contends that prison officials
have violated his rights under the free exercise clause and RLUIPA in
three ways: (1) by refusing to authorize a study group for inmates who
have described themselves as atheists, freethinkers, humanists and
'other' and those who have identified themselves to prison officials as
having no religious preference; (2) by failing to provide petitioner
with publications about atheism; and (3) by preventing him from ordering
publications about atheism.

Petitioner has not stated a claim under the free exercise
clause for one simple reason. He does not allege (nor is it possible to
see how he could plausibly do so) that merely reading books about
atheism or meeting in a study group with inmates of various
philosophical bents constitutes the exercise of his religion, that is
'the observation of [ ] central religious belief[s] or practice[s]' of
atheism. Civil Liberties for Urban Believers, 342 F.3d at 760.
Therefore, petitioner must be denied leave to proceed on his claim that
respondents Taylor, Hepp and Huibregtse violated his First Amendment
free exercise rights by refusing to provide him with materials about
atheism or to authorize a study groups for atheist, humanist and
freethinking inmates and inmates with no or an 'other' religious
preference

In this case, petitioner is not challenging the prison's
decision to deny atheists the opportunity to meet together to discuss
their commonly held religious beliefs. Instead, petitioner alleges that
he asked prison officials to authorize a group for inmates of differing
religious and philosophical persuasions, including inmates with no
religious preference at all, to meet together to discuss their differing
ideas. Such an activity is more akin to a debate society meeting than to
a group religious practice. Although petitioner might wish to share his
atheist beliefs with others (just as a Christian inmate might wish to
evangelize his fellow prisoners), prison officials do not violate
inmates' free exercise rights when they refuse to permit gathering of
inmates of different religious or philosophical persuasions for the
purpose of facilitating inter-religious dialogue. By refusing to
authorize a study group for inmates who designate themselves as
atheists, humanists, freethinkers and other and inmates who have no
religious preference, respondents Taylor and Hepp did not violated
petitioner's rights under the free exercise clause or RLUIPA.

On the other hand, from the same case:

[If] petitioner was unable to order books about atheism because
of the facility's ban on publications ... [then] the actions of prison
officials may have violated his rights under the free exercise clause
and RLUIPA as well as the free speech clause of the First Amendment.

Why would studying atheism together be unprotected by RLUIPA
because it isn't the observation of [ ] central religious belief[s] or
practice[s] of atheism, but ordering books about atheism be protected
by it?  And why would a request for a study group for
atheists/freethinkers/humanists/other and those who have no religious
preference be treated as a request to authorize a group for inmates of
differing religious and philosophical persuasions -- simply because the
group doesn't just include self-described atheists but also others who
sound pretty close to atheism but don't fit within that denomination?

Eugene
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Re: AlterNet website

2007-02-12 Thread David E. Guinn
As I recall, he wrote a book about his time at the Harvard Divinity School in 
the late 80s early 90s.  He went back after he had established his career as a 
writer for publications like the NY Times, the New Yorker, etc..

David E. Guinn JD, PhD
 
Recent Publications Available from SSRN at 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





  - Original Message - 
  From: Douglas Laycock 
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Monday, February 12, 2007 4:58 PM
  Subject: RE: AlterNet website


  In his Colbert appearance, Hedges said he is a Christian and a seminary 
graduate.  He complained of his faith being hijacked by the people he is 
attacking in the book.  He revealed no details on what he actually believes 
about his religion.  

  Quoting Newsom Michael [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

   I too have read the piece, but have a decidedly different reaction to
   it.  I wouldn't call it hate speech, or his attack vicious.  That is,
   perhaps, a bit too intemperate.  He raises a series of legitimate
   questions and concerns.  The fact that his particular solutions might -
   or might not - be problematic does not mean that the questions and
   concerns are not real and serious.
  
  
  
   By the way, your use of the word Christian suggests that Christian
   applies only to a rather narrow subset of Christians.  I am not sure
   that that is appropriate either. Or to put it differently, there are
   some Christians who agree with much of what Hedges has to say.
  
  
  
   
  
   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
   [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Rick Duncan
   Sent: Monday, February 12, 2007 10:10 AM
   To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
   Subject: RE: AlterNet website
  
  
  
   I just read Hedges' piece. It was pure hate speech, but speech I believe
   the Constitution protects.
  
  
  
   It sounds like Hedges also wishes to restrict not only Christian
   broadcasters, but also Christian schools, such as the one my son
   attends. His real problem is not so much the Christian fascists he
   attacks so viciously, but all three Clauses of the First Amendment.
  
  
  
   Hedges piece is a sad and bitter piece, written by a man who believes
   that both political parties have blessed the unchecked rape of America
   and that those who believe in the teachings of the Bible have moved
   from the reality-based world to one of magic -- to fantastic visions of
   angels and miracles, to a childlike belief that God has a plan for them
   and Jesus will guide and protect them. This mythological worldview, one
   that has no use for science or dispassionate, honest intellectual
   inquiry, one that promises that the loss of jobs and health insurance
   does not matter, as long as you are right with Jesus, offers a lying
   world of consistency that addresses the emotional yearnings of desperate
   followers at the expense of reality.
  
  
  
   I think the real threat we face is not Christian fascism, but rather
   religious persecution directed at anyone who has a committed,childlike
   faith in God and God's lies, or who believes in this mythological
   worldview. We need a strong First Amendment now more than ever.
  
  
  
   Returning to lurk mode, Rick Duncan
  
  
  
   Rick Duncan
   Welpton Professor of Law
   University of Nebraska College of Law
   Lincoln, NE 68583-0902
  
  
  
  
   It's a funny thing about us human beings: not many of us doubt God's
   existence and then start sinning. Most of us sin and then start doubting
   His existence.  --J. Budziszewski (The Revenge of Conscience)
  
  
  
   Once again the ancient maxim is vindicated, that the perversion of the
   best is the worst. -- Id.
  
  
  
   
  
   Food fight?
   http://answers.yahoo.com/dir/index;_ylc=X3oDMTFvbGNhMGE3BF9TAzM5NjU0NTE
   wOARfcwMzOTY1NDUxMDMEc2VjA21haWxfdGFnbGluZQRzbGsDbWFpbF90YWcx?link=asks
   id=396545367  Enjoy some healthy debate
   in the Yahoo! Answers Food  Drink QA.
   http://answers.yahoo.com/dir/index;_ylc=X3oDMTFvbGNhMGE3BF9TAzM5NjU0NTE
   wOARfcwMzOTY1NDUxMDMEc2VjA21haWxfdGFnbGluZQRzbGsDbWFpbF90YWcx?link=asks
   id=396545367
  
  


  Douglas Laycock
  Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
  University of Michigan Law School
  625 S. State St.
  Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
734-647-9713



--


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Re: Are churches public venues for NFL purposes?

2007-02-03 Thread David E. Guinn
There are several policy and politics issues arising in this exception:

1)  The reason that businesses have better rights than non-profits is simply 
because they had better lobbyists during the copyright revision process.

2)  These are exceptions to copyright in large part driven by music 
copyrightholders.  Since composers and writers and their publishers make 
substantial income from licensing public performances (even to non-profits) 
they want to limit the exceptions to their copyright.  In this case, television 
is simply following the same model in large part because music rights holders 
are afraid that lessening the protection for TV would ultimately lessen their 
performance rights.  (Note the common ownership of each by media conglomerates.)

3)  I am not sure why you find it surprising that television owners would want 
to protect the measurability of their viewership.  They sell advertising based 
upon projected viewership -- and if they do not achieve their numbers (even 
through mismeasurement) they have to refund the payments.

4)  Finally, I would point out that this provision covers not only broadcast, 
but cable television--where the cable owners income would be impacted by a 
broader exemption.

Since copyright and free speech are both constitutionally protected rights, I 
do not subscribe to the position that the first amendment should take precedent.

David

David E. Guinn JD, PhD
 
Recent Publications Available from SSRN at 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608





  - Original Message - 
  From: Marty Lederman 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
  Cc: jack.balkin ; William Patry 
  Sent: Saturday, February 03, 2007 1:37 PM
  Subject: Re: Are churches public venues for NFL purposes?


  The basic prohibition stems from 17 USC 106(5), which gives the copyright 
owner the exclusive right to publicly display an audiovisual work.  The 
restriction here presumably is triggered if the church's display is public 
(on which see more below).  There is an exemption in section 110(5)(B) for a
communication by an establishment of a transmission or retransmission 
embodying a performance or display of a nondramatic musical work intended to be 
received by the general public, originated by a radio or television broadcast 
station licensed as such by the Federal Communications Commission, or, if an 
audiovisual transmission, by a cable system or satellite carrier, if--
(i) in the case of an establishment other than a food service or drinking 
establishment, either the establishment in which the communication occurs has 
less than 2,000 gross square feet of space (excluding space used for customer 
parking and for no other purpose), or the establishment in which the 
communication occurs has 2,000 or more gross square feet of space (excluding 
space used for customer parking and for no other purpose) and--
(I) if the performance is by audio means only, the performance is 
communicated by means of a total of not more than 6 loudspeakers, of which not 
more than 4 loudspeakers are located in any 1 room or adjoining outdoor space; 
or
(II) if the performance or display is by audiovisual means, any visual 
portion of the performance or display is communicated by means of a total of 
not more than 4 audiovisual devices, of which not more than 1 audiovisual 
device is located in any 1 room, and no such audiovisual device has a diagonal 
screen size greater than 55 inches, and any audio portion of the performance or 
display is communicated by means of a total of not more than 6 loudspeakers, of 
which not more than 4 loudspeakers are located in any 1 room or adjoining 
outdoor space.

  I don't think a church qualifies as an establishment under the Copyright 
Act, which is defined (section 101) as a store, shop, or any similar place of 
business open to the general public for the primary purpose of selling goods or 
services in which the majority of the gross square feet of space that is 
nonresidential is used for that purpose, and in which nondramatic musical works 
are performed publicly.

  Thus, even if its television were under 55 inches, the church presumably 
would not qualify for the exemption.  On the other hand, if it's display were 
not public, then it would not appear to be restricted in the first instance.  
If invitees were limited to church members, would that be a public display?  
Well, the statute provides that to perform or display a work 'publicly' 
means--
(1) to perform or display it at a place open to the public or at any place 
where a substantial number of persons outside of a normal circle of a family 
and its social acquaintances is gathered; or (2) to transmit or otherwise 
communicate a performance or display of the work to a place specified by clause 
(1) or to the public, by means of any device or process, whether the members of 
the public capable of receiving the performance or display receive

Re: Smith and exemptions

2006-10-17 Thread David E. Guinn



I agree with Alan's refinement of the issue -- but 
wonder about his solution. If one collapses protection of religion into 
speech, why is religion relevant? Are there not characteristics of 
religion, such as it associational or communitarian aspects, that are unique to 
religion? If the religion clauses have any independent, non-speech content, 
wouldn't that require some consideration of these non-speech 
factors?
David E. Guinn JD, 
PhDRecent Publications Available from SSRN at http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608

- Original Message - 

  From: 
  Brownstein, Alan 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Tuesday, October 17, 2006 11:15 
  AM
  Subject: RE: Smith and exemptions
  
  
  I think the more 
  interesting question raised by this case – at least based on Marc’s 
  description of it – is whether courts should provide more rigorous review of 
  regulations burdening religious organizations or individuals when the law at 
  issue regulates speech or voting or ballot access. If a law in any of these areas would be subject 
  to some standard of review less than strict scrutiny when the law is applied 
  to a secular organization or individual, would the same law be subject to 
  strict scrutiny with regard to its application to a religious organization or 
  individual. In light of the Court’s 
  often stated conclusion that religion is a viewpoint of speech, does the free 
  exercise clause require that speakers expressing religious viewpoints – 
  particularly in the context of political campaigns – must receive greater 
  protection for their expressive activities than speakers expressing secular 
  viewpoints. 
  
  
  I think the answer to 
  that question has to be that it does not – and that the few cases touching 
  this issue support this answer.
  
  Alan 
  Brownstein
  
  
  
  
  
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu 
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu] On Behalf 
  Of Marc SternSent: Tuesday, October 17, 2006 6:58 
  AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  AcademicsSubject: RE: Smith and 
  exemptions
  
  
  Church Ferry Road Baptist Church v 
  Higgins was a church's challenge to a Montana statute 
  requiring disclosure of certain activities and expenditures in regard to 
  ballot initiatives. Most of the 
  opinion addresses free speech implications of campaign finance law regulation, 
  but the court also addressed and dismissed the church’s claim that it could 
  not be subject to disclosure laws on free exercise grounds. It claimed that since there were some exemptions 
  in the statute (for newspapers and membership organizations) Lukumi required 
  application of compelling interest analysis. The court rejected this submission, on the ground 
  that Lukumi held that a statue was neutral and generally applicable so long as 
  religion was not the only non-exempt category. Is that right? The Third Circuit apparently 
  disagreed in the Newark Police cases.
  Marc Stern
  
  

  ___To post, send 
  message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduTo subscribe, unsubscribe, change 
  options, or get password, see 
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  that messages sent to this large list cannot be viewed as private. 
  Anyone can subscribe to the list and read messages that are posted; people can 
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Anyone can subscribe to the list and read messages that are posted; people can 
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Re: Smith and exemptions

2006-10-17 Thread David E. Guinn



I'm not sure how far I disagree with Alan as a 
practical matter, though I was concerned about the description of the case that 
suggested some "associations" were exempted from the law but not religion. 


However, I guess the greater concern is that the 
courts, particularly Scalia,have often used speech as a way to avoid 
religious issues and the possible criticism that protecting religion violates 
equal protection requirements. If we automatically default to a free 
speech analysis we miss the potential bias in the law (as the court missed the 
Christian bias in"Goldman.")

David
- Original Message - 

  From: 
  Brownstein, Alan 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Tuesday, October 17, 2006 12:17 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Smith and exemptions
  
  
  I think David’s 
  absolutely right that there are characteristics of religion that justify it 
  receiving special constitutional treatment. And I certainly did not intend to suggest that we 
  should collapse the protection of religion into the protection of speech 
  whenever there is any speech dimension to religious activity. Most of the time the practice of religion should 
  not be viewed as speech – but rather as the exercise of 
  religion. 
  
  
  But there are 
  situations where religious expressive activities should be treated as speech 
  for the purposes of reviewing regulations that burden or restrict 
  them. Drawing that line may not be 
  that easy to do, but I think it has to be done. Some of the places where I think strong arguments 
  can be offered to treat religious expressive activities as speech involve 
  content neutral speech regulations, and the regulation of elections 
  (regulations relating to voting, ballot access, campaign financing laws 
  etc.)
  
  Alan 
  Brownstein
  
  
  
  
  
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu 
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu] On Behalf 
  Of David E. 
  GuinnSent: Tuesday, October 
  17, 2006 9:30 AMTo: 
  Law  Religion issues for Law 
  AcademicsSubject: Re: Smith and 
  exemptions
  
  
  I agree with Alan's refinement of 
  the issue -- but wonder about his solution. If one collapses protection of religion 
  into speech, why is religion relevant? Are there not characteristics of 
  religion, such as it associational or communitarian aspects, that are unique 
  to religion? If the religion clauses have any independent, non-speech content, 
  wouldn't that require some consideration of these non-speech 
  factors?
  
  David E. Guinn JD, PhDRecent Publications 
  Available from SSRN at http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=199608
  
  
  
  - Original Message - 
  
  

From: Brownstein, Alan 


To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
Academics 

Sent: 
Tuesday, October 17, 2006 11:15 AM

Subject: RE: 
Smith and exemptions


I think the more 
interesting question raised by this case – at least based on Marc’s 
description of it – is whether courts should provide more rigorous review of 
regulations burdening religious organizations or individuals when the law at 
issue regulates speech or voting or ballot access. If a law in any of these areas would be subject 
to some standard of review less than strict scrutiny when the law is applied 
to a secular organization or individual, would the same law be subject to 
strict scrutiny with regard to its application to a religious organization 
or individual. In light of the 
Court’s often stated conclusion that religion is a viewpoint of speech, does 
the free exercise clause require that speakers expressing religious 
viewpoints – particularly in the context of political campaigns – must 
receive greater protection for their expressive activities than speakers 
expressing secular viewpoints. 


I think the answer 
to that question has to be that it does not – and that the few cases 
touching this issue support this answer.

Alan 
Brownstein





From: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED].ucla.edu] On 
Behalf Of Marc SternSent: Tuesday, October 17, 2006 6:58 
AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
AcademicsSubject: RE: Smith and 
exemptions


Church Ferry Road Baptist Church 
v Higgins was a church's challenge to a Montana statute 
requiring disclosure of certain activities and expenditures in regard to 
ballot initiatives. Most of the 
opinion addresses free speech implications of campaign finance law 
regulation, but the court also addressed and dismissed the church’s claim 
that it could not be subject to disclosure laws on free exercise 
grounds. It claimed that since 
there were some exemptions in the statute (for newspapers and membership 
organizations) Lukumi required application of compelling interest 
analysis

Re: Victory for Military Chaplains Who Pray In Jesus Name

2006-10-02 Thread David E. Guinn



I hardly agree that he lost on the merits of the 
argument. I have yet to read any reasonable interpretation of law or 
history thatsupports yourposition.

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Gordon 
  James Klingenschmitt 
  To: Paul Finkelman ; religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Monday, October 02, 2006 9:13 
  AM
  Subject: Re: Victory for Military 
  Chaplains Who Pray "In Jesus Name"
  
  Having lost this debate onits intellectual merits, Mr. Finkelman 
  resorts to personal attacks on my character.
  
  Yet I agree with him on one point,that pride is a terrible sin, so 
  I shall here endeavor to humblypracticeProverbs 27:2: "Let 
  another praise you,and not your own mouth; someone else, and not your 
  own lips" lest I appear to toot my own horn. 
  
  84% of the Sailors on my ship agreed, "the command chaplain cares for all 
  denominations, regardless of faith or belief. 
  
  94% of Americans supported me during my hunger strike, and only 6% 
  supported the Navy's position, in this poll:
  http://persuade.tv/frenzy/WNDpoll.pdf
  
  85% of Americans supported my position on the issue of letting chaplains 
  pray in Jesus name, in this poll:
  http://persuade.tv/frenzy6/DecaturDaily17Sep06.pdf 
  
  
  Ultimately, even public opinion is secondary to God's opinion, and if I 
  have pleased Him then I am justified. 
  
  Buthaving lost this NATIONAL debate, the anti-Jesus crowd was 
  properly rebuked by the American public (who is decidedly pro-Jesus), and so 
  the Navy and Air Force were ordered by Congress to respect public opinion (and 
  the Constitution), sofreedom of religious _expression_was properly 
  restored.
  
  I don't mind the personal insults by Mr.Guinn and Mr. Finkelman, 
  (I've been insulted by better men), but theirlack of intellectual 
  argumentappears very much as "sour grapes." 
  
  Chaplain Klingenschmitt
  
  
  Paul Finkelman [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  wrote:
  Sounds 
very much like someone tooting his own horn? Is excessive pridealso a 
sin? One can only wonder how G-d will respond to someone who brags 
about hiswork to make outcasts of gay members of the human family. 
Perhaps theChaplain should try marching a mile or two in the boot of a 
gay sailoror soldier.I am no expert on the chaplain's faith, but 
have spent a great deal ofmy life studying religion and this is the 
first time I have ever heard aChristian assert that praying fomr the 
Book of Psalms compromised aChristian's faith.Paul 
FinkelmanPresident William McKinley Distinguished Professor of 
Lawand Public PolicyAlbany Law School80 New Scotland 
AvenueAlbany, New York 12208-3494518-445-3386 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
  
  
  Do you Yahoo!?Everyone is raving about the all-new 
  Yahoo! Mail.
  
  

  ___To post, send 
  message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduTo subscribe, unsubscribe, change 
  options, or get password, see 
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Re: Victory for Military Chaplains Who Pray In Jesus Name

2006-10-01 Thread David E. Guinn



I am appalled by the selfishness of this line of 
argument -- that the only point of concern is to "protect the chaplain"-- 
as opposed to serve the religious needs and interest of our armed 
forces.

Not only are these interpretations of history and 
law enormously biased and inaccurate, they are offensive. If the 
chaplaincy's purpose is solely to promote Chaplain Klingenschmitt's sectarian 
faith than perhaps Madison was correct in arguing that Congress' decision to 
hire chaplains was wrong and should now be recended.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Gordon 
  James Klingenschmitt 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Saturday, September 30, 2006 8:16 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Victory for Military 
  Chaplains Who Pray "In Jesus Name"
  
  Excellent comment Professor Scarberry, 
  
  But now that the policy is rescinded, so is any distinction between 
  "public worship at divine services" and "public worship at command ceremonies" 
  and so the law (once again) protects the chaplain at all events whenever he 
  prays...prayer itself is restored as an act of "public worship" the same way 
  italways had been since 1860.
  
  The origins of the 1860 law were described recently by ournew 
  friend CDR Wildhack, who wrote in the Naval Law Review Vol 51 (2003): 
  
  
  "As in our day, questions about the manner and forms of 
  worship have also long been a part of the history of the Chaplain Corps. Early 
  regulations specified that the duties of chaplains included having to 'read' 
  prayers (53). In 1859, the Speaker of the House of Representatives asked the 
  Secretary of the Navy whether chaplains were required to 'read' prayers or 
  follow any particular forms or ceremony in leading worship, and if the Navy 
  had any evidence of a requirement that non-Episcopal chaplains had to follow 
  the Episcopal liturgy (54). In replying, the Secretary explained that he 
  was not aware that the instruction to 'read' had ever been construed to 
  require a literal reading from a particular prayer book, but rather as a 
  requirement that prayers be offered aloud without specifying they be read from 
  a book, written down by the chaplain beforehand to be read later, or offered 
  extemporaneously (55). To further reassure the Speaker and his colleagues in 
  Congress, the Secretary announced a new order officially interpreting the 
  requirement that prayers be 'read' to mean that prayers be 'offered,' thus 
  leaving the chaplain free to follow the dictates of his own religious 
  tradition.(56) Perhaps in response to such communication with Congress, new 
  Navy Regulations adopted in 1860 included this addition: "Every chaplain shall 
  be permitted to conduct public worship according to the manner and forms of 
  the church of which he may be a member."(57) No longer merely a regulation, 
  that language is now in force as part of the United States Code.(58)" 
  
  
  Thanks to CDR Wildhack for this insightBut it reveals 
  today'stragic ironythe Episcopal Book of Common Prayer was once seen 
  as 'mandatory' for all chaplains...but Congress (wisely) overcame that, to 
  allow non-Christian chaplains (i.e. first 3 Jewish chaplains appointed by Abe 
  Lincoln in 1860) total freedom to NOT the use Christian prayer book...and now 
  in 2006, the policy actually PROHIBITED using the Christian prayer 
  bookin publicthe pendulum swung too far...so now Congress has 
  (wisely) righted itself, to restorereligious diversity, allowing any 
  variety of prayers to be said,instead of punishing Christian prayers 
  while forcing Christian chaplains to pray Jewish prayers (i.e. theologically 
  sensitive prayers). 
  
  Chaplain Klingenschmitt
  "Scarberry, Mark" 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  It 
seems there is a distinction between "Divine/Religious Services" and other 
"command functions." I don't suppose Marty is saying that a chaplain may not 
pray in Jesus' name during Divine/Relgious Services. Paragraph 6(c) does not 
require that Divine/Religious Services be non-sectarian but only that 
religious elements in other command functions be non-sectarian. If 
Divine/Religious Services were required to be nonsectarian then they 
couldn't be divine services for the chaplain's particular faith; note that 
the chaplains are required to "provide ministry to those of their own faith" 
which rules out nonsectarian requirements for such ministry whether or not 
that ministry occurs in a Divine/Religious Service. I suppose there could be 
a serious question whether a particular memorial service for a deceased 
sailor (the context, I believe of Chaplain Klingenschmitt's disagreement 
with the Navy) is a Divine/Religious Service or instead a different kind of 
remembrance of the sailor. Whether nonsectarian prayer would be required 
might depend on how the event was classified, I think.Mark 
ScarberryPepperdine
  
  

Re: Christian Skating Time

2006-07-03 Thread David E. Guinn
I don't konw about rock promotors, but gospel concerts (which I believe are 
almost as popular) are explicitly religious in their advertising in terms of 
visuals, lyrical excerpts, and framing headings.


David

- Original Message - 
From: Mark Tushnet [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu; 
Scarberry, Mark [EMAIL PROTECTED]

Cc: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Monday, July 03, 2006 1:37 PM
Subject: RE: Christian Skating Time


Let me express my doubts about this assertion -- No one would doubt that 
a
Christian music concert could be held (and advertised) -- where the 
presenter

is a for-profit business.  (A genuine question:  How do for-profit concert
promoters advertise concerts by Christian rock groups?)
--
Mark Tushnet
William Nelson Cromwell Professor of Law
Harvard Law School
Areeda 223
Cambridge, MA  02138


Quoting Scarberry, Mark [EMAIL PROTECTED]:


The music is a substantial part of the skating experience. No one would
doubt that a Christian music concert could be held (and advertised).
Does the combination of a physical activity (skating) with the playing
of music deprive the business owner of the free speech rights that a
concert promoter would have?

Suppose the owner of the rink decided to have a global warming evening
featuring the audio from Vice President Gore's movie. Would that be
permitted, even though a lot of people would choose not to come to the
rink in order to avoid what they would perceive as propaganda? If it
would be permitted, then doesn't the NY law discriminate against
religious speech?

And if, as I think someone suggested, a spiritual evening would be
permitted, so long as it was inclusive by not focusing on any particular
religious tradition, then isn't this a matter of viewpoint
discrimination?

Mark S. Scarberry
Pepperdine University School of Law
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RE: Re: Teenagers The Spirit of Liberty

2006-05-23 Thread David E. Guinn


This strikes me as theologically incoherent as well as constitutionally troubling (though more in terms of constitutional morality rather than law.)

First, the students (as approved by Prof. Duncan) are using prayer not as a religious devotion but as a political act -- to express their disapproval of the one student and the "unelected judiciary" and as a weapon against others that don't share in that faith. That strikes me as sacralege as well as a perversion. 

Second, why is it necessary to make these prayers public in a public forum? This sounds a little too much like the hypocrites of Mt. 6:5 If it is a matter of needing community, why not a community made up of fellow believers rather than demanding the audience of those who might not believe (or believe as they do)?

While it may be "their" commencement, it is also the commencement of all of the other students and their families present. Should everyone be allowed to interrupt the service and impose their religious exhortation on everyone else?

Graduations frequently involve not just commencement, but a series of celebrations over the course of the weekend. Why not reserve religious celebrations for a separate ceremony shared among their community of faith? The only justification I can come up with is the belief that their faith is so weak that it must be endorsed by the school in the public ceremony.

I find the whole thing offensive and sad.

David


Date: Tue, 23 May 2006 12:50:19 -0700From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduSubject: Re: Teenagers The Spirit of Liberty
Here is the way I look at it. "One poor kid" tried to censor his classmates with the help of a powerful legal ally, the ACLU.

His classmates did not like being silenced by the "poor kid." So they made a stand--not to ostracize the poor kid, but to stand up for their liberty of religious _expression_ at their own commencement. They did not violate the spirit of the EC. The spirit of the EC deals with government coercionand religion. The true spirit of the Religion Clause is on the side of the students who would not be cowed and silenced by the ACLU and the unelected judiciary. 

I am proud of these kids. I hope their spirit spreads to many other schools and impacts many other commencements. There is no need to ask school officialsto sponsor prayer. All students need to do is pray: without asking for endorsement or permission from government authorities.

Cheers, Rick Duncan[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


Some info from the involved ACLU affiliate isat this link:

http://www.aclu-ky.org/news.html#Grad%20Prayer

That info includes the following paragraph:

"School-sponsored prayer constitutes a symbolic and tangible ‘preference… given by law’ to a religious sect by exalting it over contrary religious beliefs deemed less worthy of government endorsement,� the ACLU argues in the court papers. “It compels attendance at a place of worship by conditioning participation at public graduation ceremonies on acceptance of prayer at those ceremonies.�

I don't see how having a student body election for "graduation chaplain" as I saw described in this Kentucky case cures the problem post Lee and Santa Fe. I don't know why anyone would cheer the ostracism of some poor kid at his own high school graduation. With all due respect to Prof. Duncan, that doesn't sound like "religious liberty" to me.

Allen Asch


In a message dated 5/23/2006 10:14:01 AM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

For a somewhat different take on this, see my Religion Clause blog post titled “Looking for Establishment Clause Loopholes� at
http://religionclause.blogspot.com/2006/05/commentary-looking-for-establishment.html



*Howard M. Friedman Disting. Univ. ProfessorEmeritusUniversity of Toledo College of LawToledo, OH 43606-3390 Phone: (419) 530-2911, FAX (419) 530-4732 E-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] * 




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Rick DuncanSent: Tuesday, May 23, 2006 12:04 PMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: Teenagers The Spirit of Liberty


Link(See also link)



Excerpt from the second link):





High School Students Defy ACLU and Court

May 20, 2006 01:43 PM EST



By Sher Zieve – Despite U.S. District Judge Joseph McKinley’s ruling that no prayer was to be allowed at Kentucky’s Russell County High School commencement ceremonies, at least 200 students recited the Lord’s Prayer during the ceremony. The ACLU had argued to have prayer banned at graduation, due to a complaint from 1 student.

Thunderous applause is said to have broken out towards the end of the prayer and senior Megan Chapman continued with her praise, when she said that her fellow students should trust God as they continue their lives after high school.Chapman commented "It [the prayer] made the whole senior class come together as one and I think that's the best way to go out", 

Re: Early dismissal for Muslims on Friday

2006-05-15 Thread David E. Guinn


- Original Message - 
From: Will Linden [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 So, are you suggesting this is really the same sort of thing as 
minority religions seeking to add their representation to the list of 
alternate-side-parking-exemption days here in New York, whether there is 
any particular need for parking on the days or not?


I think this trivializes the desire to be recognized and respected by one's 
country through some type of acknowledgement of religious difference.  In 
this regard, it is far more understandable for a minority to seek a minor 
accomodation as opposed the the annual hysteria over Christmas displays and 
seasons greetings by a majority religion whose religious traditions are 
overwhelmingly respected and incorporated within the social norm.


David 
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Re: Early dismissal for Muslims on Friday

2006-05-15 Thread David E. Guinn



I agree that the local tradition takes precedence 
-- but what is the principle that controls? If this is maliable to fit the 
local group, do they have absolute autonomy to determine their norm -- or do we 
require that they adjust their tradition to fit our norms? Or must they 
adjust to the norm adopted by the group that is most accomodating to existing 
norms? For example, if one mosque adopts an evening service,does 
that means that all can and therefore no accomodation is necessary?

I was simply citing the Middle East as a broad, 
diverse (Shi'a and Sunni) comparative norm from a region that most Muslims would 
consider relavent.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Steven 
  Jamar 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Monday, May 15, 2006 9:31 AM
  Subject: Re: Early dismissal for Muslims 
  on Friday
  In the particular instance in Howard County Maryland, the 
  primary weekly service is on Fridays at 1:45 pm, which would effectively cut 
  out the last class period of the day on Fridays under the Howard County school 
  schedule.
  
  The Muslim community associated with the one mosque in Howard County is 
  seeking the accommodation for its male members who are required to 
  attend. Women are encouraged to attend.
  
  There is nothing magical or critically important about the 1:45 start 
  time, as opposed to a somewhat later or earlier time, but there are 
  practical logistical reasons as well as religiously premised-reasons for that 
  timing.
  
  In evaluating the request, it is important, is it not, to take it on its 
  own terms and on the understandings of this Muslim community and its practices 
  -- not those of several Sunni countries or Wahabi or Maliki or New York or any 
  other Muslim community. Accommodation as a principle doesn't rest on the 
  universality of some norm within a large category of religion, does it? 
  We don't accommodate Christians based on them being just Christians or some 
  practice in the Greek Orthodox tradition. We accommodate based on the 
  local version, regardless of how idiosyncratic, right?
  
  Steve
  
  
  On May 12, 2006, at 5:55 PM, David E. Guinn wrote:
  
This is a difficult answer to parse down to a 
principle.

I am most familiar with Islamic practice in the 
Middle East (Iraq, Jordan and Egypt). While Friday is usually taken as 
part of the weekend in those counties, Friday is not considered the Sabbath 
-- so there is no religious obligation to observe the whole day. I 
would suspect that the Islamic students in this country are seeking an 
accomodation that, they feel, respects their faith in the same 
waySabbatarians are accomodated. Moreover, the principle 
religious service is noon prayers -- so evening service (to the extent that 
it exists)is an American adaptation. Should the School seek to 
enforce the adaptation?

While this Middle Eastern based understanding 
might suggest an accomodation (i.e. allow these Muslim students to schedule 
study hall and lunch together to facilitate their attending noon prayers on 
Friday), what happens to an Americanized Muslim congregation that seeks to 
treat Friday as a Sabbath?

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Volokh, 
  Eugene 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Friday, May 12, 2006 3:59 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Early dismissal for 
  Muslims on Friday
  
   I 
  would think that there's a difference -- the sort of difference in 
  quantity that becomes a difference in quality -- between skipping a couple 
  of days and skipping every Friday afternoon. It may be worth 
  accommodating students even in the latter instance, but I'm not sure the 
  two are fully on point.
  
   Incidentally, if I were a school administrator, I'd want to 
  know how firm the students' insistence is likely to be (as well as, of 
  course, knowing how much of each Friday afternoon they wanted to take 
  off). If they're likely to be unbudgeable, then I might figure that 
  there's little gained in being a hardass. On the other hand, if the 
  felt obligation isn't that strong -- for instance, if they could and would 
  attend Friday evening services were they to be required to stay in school 
  until the end of the school day -- then I might be more insistent. 
  (I also probably wouldn't disclose this decision tree to them up 
  front.)
  
   Eugene
  

-Original Message-From: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]] 
On Behalf Of Steven JamarSent: Friday, May 12, 2006 
4:06 AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
AcademicsSubject: Early dismissal for Muslims on 
FridaySome Muslim students have requested that 
Howard County Maryland schools release them early

Re: Early dismissal for Muslims on Friday

2006-05-15 Thread David E. Guinn
Since atheists, by definition, deny religious obligation  -- one can't help 
feeling that the effort to include Darwin's birthday is little more than a 
hostile protest.


- Original Message - 
From: Will Linden [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Monday, May 15, 2006 1:50 PM
Subject: Re: Early dismissal for Muslims on Friday



At 11:28 AM 5/15/06 -0500, you wrote:



- Original Message - From: Will Linden [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 So, are you suggesting this is really the same sort of thing as 
minority religions seeking to add their representation to the list 
of alternate-side-parking-exemption days here in New York, whether there 
is any particular need for parking on the days or not?


I think this trivializes the desire to be recognized and respected by 
one's country through some type of acknowledgement of religious 
difference.


Then what do you call some recent calls by NY atheists to add Darwins's 
birthday to the list? Are they trivializing the issue or not?



r wrongly) forward the messages to others.





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Re: Early dismissal for Muslims on Friday

2006-05-12 Thread David E. Guinn
Title: Message



This is a difficult answer to parse down to a 
principle.

I am most familiar with Islamic practice in the 
Middle East (Iraq, Jordan and Egypt). While Friday is usually taken as 
part of the weekend in those counties, Friday is not considered the Sabbath -- 
so there is no religious obligation to observe the whole day. I would 
suspect that the Islamic students in this country are seeking an accomodation 
that, they feel, respects their faith in the same waySabbatarians are 
accomodated. Moreover, the principle religious service is noon prayers -- 
so evening service (to the extent that it exists)is an American 
adaptation. Should the School seek to enforce the adaptation?

While this Middle Eastern based understanding might 
suggest an accomodation (i.e. allow these Muslim students to schedule study hall 
and lunch together to facilitate their attending noon prayers on Friday), what 
happens to an Americanized Muslim congregation that seeks to treat Friday as a 
Sabbath?

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Volokh, 
  Eugene 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Friday, May 12, 2006 3:59 PM
  Subject: RE: Early dismissal for Muslims 
  on Friday
  
   I 
  would think that there's a difference -- the sort of difference in quantity 
  that becomes a difference in quality -- between skipping a couple of days and 
  skipping every Friday afternoon. It may be worth accommodating students 
  even in the latter instance, but I'm not sure the two are fully on 
  point.
  
   Incidentally, if I were a school administrator, I'd want to know 
  how firm the students' insistence is likely to be (as well as, of course, 
  knowing how much of each Friday afternoon they wanted to take off). If 
  they're likely to be unbudgeable, then I might figure that there's little 
  gained in being a hardass. On the other hand, if the felt obligation 
  isn't that strong -- for instance, if they could and would attend Friday 
  evening services were they to be required to stay in school until the end of 
  the school day -- then I might be more insistent. (I also probably 
  wouldn't disclose this decision tree to them up front.)
  
   Eugene
  

-Original Message-From: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Steven 
JamarSent: Friday, May 12, 2006 4:06 AMTo: Law  
Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: Early dismissal for 
Muslims on FridaySome Muslim students have requested 
that Howard County Maryland schools release them early from school to attend 
Muslim services Friday afternoons. 

Any advice for our County Board on this one? Here we take not 
just the major Christian holidays off, but also Rosh Hashana and Yom Kippur, 
if I recall correctly. And of course allow release for other religious 
observances and accommodate Seventh Day Adventists and others as much as can 
be done practicably (scheduling sporting events and the like).

Steve




--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar   
  
vox: 202-806-8017
Howard University School of Law 
  
 fax: 202-806-8428
2900 Van Ness Street NW  
  
mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Washington, DC 20008   http://www.law.howard.edu/faculty/pages/jamar

"God, give us grace to accept with 
serenity the things that cannot be changed, courage to change the things 
which should be changed, and the wisdom to distinguish the one from the 
other."

Reinhold Neibuhr 1943
  
  

  ___To post, send 
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Re: Use of Religion to Achieve Secular Ends

2006-05-05 Thread David E. Guinn
I agree Marty that the most challenging issue relating to the governments 
use of religion relates to it secular efficacy.


I don't know the details of the BOP program -- but based on my experience 
with government programs, it strikes me as very likely that the 
administrators of the BOP program are in fact operating based upon a 
proposal made by Colson's group -- which I am sure includes statistical 
claims about recidivism of prisoners that have gone through its program. 
Thus the question is, as Marty suggests, can the government utilize a 
religious program to accomplish a secular goal?


The BOP program strikes me as little different from other types of therapy 
or treatment programs, such a drug rehab.  Let's assume that there are three 
treatment plan proposals offered.  One uses strict Skinnarian behavioral 
therapy; one uses traditional 12 step; and the third uses religious 
discipline based therapy.  (There are such therapies and active disputes 
over effectiveness claims for each.)  Assume that their outcomes are 
comperable or, as a lot of evidence suggests, that the effictiveness of the 
12 step and religious therapies are better than the behavioral.  Which can 
and should the state fund?


Few would object to the behavioral therapy.  But if it is less effective 
than the others, must the state favor it?  What about the mandate that the 
state not discriminate between religion and non-religion by favoring 
non-religion?  If the state cannot justify choosing the secular program 
based upon the objective criteria of outcomes -- how do you avoid the charge 
of favoritism?


12 step programs are widely accepted and often state funded.  However, if 
you look closely at most 12 step therapies they walk a very narrow line 
between the secular and the religious.  Indeed, for those of us who adopt a 
functionalist definition of religion, they are often a type of religion. 
Moreover, as Michael McConnell has so elequently argued, the cultural war is 
not between religion and no religion, but between religion and the ideology 
of secularism.


Clearly the religious treatment is the most problematic -- particularly if 
it is the sole form of treatment offered.  But this reverts back to the 
problem with all faith based initiatives and the need to provide 
alternatives.  The challenge is what happens when religious therapy is found 
efficatious?  In this regard, it should be noted that there is a significant 
amount of research already being conducted (both foundation supported and 
government supported) about the therapeutic benefit of spirituality in 
health care.  So the line is being crossed regularly.


I would add that Stephen Carter's warnings that it may be in religion's best 
interest not to seek government involvement is apt.  This type of government 
programming represents real dangers to religion: threats of secularizing 
religion or disproving it when the criteria becomes one of therapeutic 
benefit.  But that does not and cannot answer the role the government should 
play.


David

- Original Message - 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu; 
Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu; Law 
 Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

Sent: Friday, May 05, 2006 2:30 PM
Subject: Use of Religion to Achieve Secular Ends


The other day I posted about the unconstitutionality of the BOP 
religious-rehabilitation funding program.  See 
http://balkin.blogspot.com/2006/04/blatantly-unconstitutional-federal.html.


FYI, the Freedom from Religion Foundation has now sued to challenge the 
program:


http://ffrf.org/legal/gonzales_complaint.html

Rob Vischer and Rick Garnett have each posted thoughtful questions about 
my assertion that the state's interest in promoting religious 
transformation is an illegitimate (and troubling) governmental objective.


Vischer:

http://www.mirrorofjustice.com/mirrorofjustice/2006/05/government_fund.html

Garnett:

http://prawfsblawg.blogs.com/prawfsblawg/2006/05/religion_in_pri_1.html

Rick writes, for example, the following:

I certainly share Marty's (and Madison's) concern about religious faith 
being reduced to a convenient means for achieving the government's 
secular ends.  That said, I'm not sure why it should be 
unconstitutional -- or, in any event, why it would be profoundly 
disturbing -- for the government, as a general matter, to take, and act 
on (in non-coercive ways, of course, and consistent with the freedom of 
conscience), the view that religious transformation [and]  faith are 
good (when freely embraced).  There are dangers here, absolutely.  Still . 
. . (To be clear:  I'm not necessarily endorsing this particular program.)


Also, Marty writes, [t]he government cannot specifically aim at religious 
transformation as a means of accomplishing those secular ends.  Does this 
mean, I wonder, that government may (or should) not act with an eye 

Re: The Posner Ministerial Exception Decision

2006-04-06 Thread David E. Guinn



With respect to Posner's creating religious 
doctrine -- I don't know the details of the trial or appelate record, but it 
does seem to me that the court is simply acknowledging common fact. Many 
churchs designate the organist as the music minister and talk about the musical 
ministry. This is particularly prevalent in those denominations that use 
musical programming as alternate forms of liturgical service (such as the 
current Evangelical and Black Church relationship to Gospel). Moreover, if 
I recall correctly, many seminaries include courses on musical ministry. 
This would be particularly true for Catholic or Episcopal churchs where one of 
the litergical alternatives is the plainsong tradition or a variation on it and 
Judaism with the important place of theKantor (sp?).

Posner's decision might be troubling if none of the 
parties mentioned this -- but, again, the fall back is judical 
notice.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Marty Lederman 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Thursday, April 06, 2006 9:42 
  AM
  Subject: The Posner Ministerial Exception 
  Decision
  
  In addition to his questionable comments about 
  RFRA, there is much else worth pondering in the Posner opinion.
  
  1. For starters, he begins his 
  analysis with the following greatly overstated claim (p.2): "Federal courts are secular agencies. They therefore do not 
  exercise jurisdiction over the internal affairs of religious 
  organizations." Of course, courts often resolve disputes concerning the 
  "internal affairs of religious organizations." The difficulty is in 
  deciding which disputes are cognizable and which are 
  not. Posner later concedes as much (p.5): "The 
  ministerial exception, and the hands-off approach more generally, do not place 
  the internal affairs of religious organizations wholly beyond secular 
  jurisdiction." He then spends two pages giving examples of where courts 
  do interfere with internal church governance, including some cases in 
  which courts must "take a stand on a religious question." This 
  discussion demonstrates, I think, that there remains virtually no 
  coherence to the "internal governance" doctrine generally, and the 
  "ministerial exception" in particular.
  
  2. In his discussion, 
  Posner includes this fascinating purported distinction: "A church could 
  not subject its clergy to corporal punishment or require them to commit 
  criminal acts. E.g., Employment Division 
  v. Smith, 494 U.S. 872 (1990); United States v. Indianapolis Baptist 
  Temple, 224 F.3d 627, 
  629 (7th Cir. 2000). But it would not be constrained in 
  its dealings with them by employment laws that would 
  interfere with the church’s internal management, including 
  antidiscrimination laws." WHY? What's the 
  distinction? He doesn't say. If the Smith doctrine 
  applies to certain internal church governance decisions, why not to 
  others?
  
  3. In the end, Posner rejects the 
  plaintiff's claim because the church was asserting that the organist's 
  dismissal was based on his choice of music for Easter services, and the dispute about whether that was the real 
  reason (as opposed to age discrimination) "could propel 
  the court into a controversy, quintessentially 
  religious, over what is suitable music for Easter 
  services." But would that aesthetic dispute really be 
  "quintessentially religious," particularly if religious doctrine didn't have 
  anything to say about Easter music? Posnerincludes this 
  wonderfully provocative passage:
  
[T]here is no one way to play music. If Tomic played the organ 
with a rock and roll beat, or played excerpts from Jesus Christ Superstar, 
at an Easter Mass he would be altering the religious experience of 
the parishioners. Among his duties as music director was that of 
selecting the music to be played at the various masses. That duty required 
him to make a discretionary religious judgment because 
the Catholic Church does not have rules specifying what piece of 
music is to be played at each type of mass. Raymond F. Glover, 
“Liturgical Music: Its Forms and Functions,” in Liturgy and Music: Lifetime Learning 231, 247-48 (Robin A. Leaver  Joyce Ann Zimmerman, eds. 
1998). 
At argument Tomic’s lawyer astonished us by arguing that music 
has in itself no religious significance—its only religious significance is 
in its words. The implication is that it is a matter of indifference to the 
Church and its flock whether the words of the Gospel are set to Handel’s 
Messiah or to “Three Blind Mice.” That obviously is false. The 
religious music played at a wedding is not necessarily suitable for a 
funeral; and religious music written for Christmas is not necessarily 
suitable for Easter. Even Mozart had to struggle over what was suitable 
church music with his first patron, Archbishop Colloredo, whom the Mozart 
family 

Re: Catholic Charities Issue

2006-03-12 Thread David E. Guinn



One should, of course, never say never. The conflict in the Chicago 
suburbs of a few years ago was over the takeover of a community center by a 
mosque. No one could have possibly argued that the "use" by the mosque was 
in any way more disruptive than its use as a community center -- except that it 
would be used by Muslims. Yet the challenge, as I recall, was justified on 
grounds of land use. David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Sunday, March 12, 2006 3:00 
PM
  Subject: Re: Catholic Charities 
  Issue
  
  
  It has absolutely nothing to do with religious activities, but rather the 
  intensity of the use of land. I haven't met someone opposed to a 
  religious project yet that could have cared less whether it was a religious 
  project or an automotive repair shop. First, those opposedare 
  invariably religious themselves (often the same religion as the 
  applicant). Second, theychose to live where they do because of the 
  character of thearea, whether it is low traffic because they have 
  children or low rooflines because they live near the ocean or the 
  desert. None of them had any idea thatPres. Clinton would sign 
  legislation that would radically transform their neighborhoods in ways that 
  undermine their reasonable expectations.
  
  Marci
  
  
  In a message dated 3/12/2006 3:26:54 P.M. Eastern Standard Time, 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
  
The widespread NIMBY 
attitude towards religious activities in land use law raises a substantial 
cumulative barrier to religious activity, especially for new and small 
religious organizations.
  
  
  
  

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Re: New yORK Lawsuit

2006-02-10 Thread David E. Guinn



This seems to me to be very consistant with the 
general tendency in the courts to treat free exercise rights as a subsidiary of 
free speech rights (i.e. Rosenberger). I agree with Marc that in one sense 
it appears insensitive to not at least acknowledge the religious free exercise 
interest -- but if the judge did, what would he say: we hold religion doesn't 
rate? On a political basis, it is much easier to dodge the 
bullet.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Marc 
  Stern 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Friday, February 10, 2006 10:22 
  AM
  Subject: RE: New yORK Lawsuit
  
  
  I do not disagree 
  that ordinarily consent is not required .Perhaps because of that consent 
  should not be required when the artist would have no reason to think 
  that a particular subject would have religious objections to being 
  photographed. I do find it curious that the court seems to assume the value of 
  secular first amendment rights and gives no thought (at least according to the 
  law journal summary) to religious first amendment rights .The court did 
  express some sympathy for plaintiff but not at the level of 
  law.
  Marc 
  Stern
  
  
  
  
  
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  On Behalf Of Sanford 
  LevinsonSent: Friday, 
  February 10, 2006 10:59 AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics; Law  Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: RE: New yORK 
  Lawsuit
  
  
  
  I think that one can 
  limit the "practice of one's faith" to a refusal consciously to be 
  photographed. (This, obviously, arises in the drivers' license 
  cases.) I am not persuadedthat a serious art or news photographer 
  must get the consent of everyone he/she surreptitiously photographs, even if 
  the photographs are to be sold in a market.(I'm 
  curious:Did Alfred Eisenstadt get release forms from the famous 
  couple he photographed in Times Squareon V-J Day?) All of us run certain 
  risks when we enter the public square.
  
  
  
  sandy
  
  
  
  
  
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Marc SternSent: Fri 2/10/2006 8:21 AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  AcademicsSubject: RE: 
  New yORK 
  Lawsuit
  
  
  Today's NY Law journal reports on Nussenzweig v. di Corcia in which a 
  Hassidic Jew with religious objections to be photographed sued a photographer 
  who took a surreptitious picture of the plaintiff and sold 10 prints for 
  between 20-3 dollars. New 
  York law permits artists to use other persons images 
  for artistic, but not for commercial, purposes. The narrow question was 
  whether the sale of a few copies of the picture for substantial sums artistic 
  or commercial. In the course of holding it was the former, the court 
  (according to the law journal) noted that New York law favors freedom of artistic 
  _expression_. For some reason, the court thought it irrelevant to observe that 
  the protection of those first amendment rights came at the expense of other 
  first amendment rights that of the plaintiff to freely practice his faith 
  without state interference, here in the form of allowing the reproduction of 
  his image without his consent.
  Marc Stern 
  
  

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Survey - DePaul Center for Church/State Studies

2006-01-30 Thread David E. Guinn




As the Center for Church/State 
Studies of DePaul University College of Law enters its 24th year, we 
are undertaking a complete program review for the Center. To support that review, I would 
appreciate receiving your responses as someone interested in the field of 
religious freedom to the following questions. (Please answer off line to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] ).

1. Are you familiar with the work of the 
Center for Church/State Studies? If 
so, what is your opinion of its work? (Its webpage is: http://www.law.depaul.edu/institutes%5Fcenters/ccss/default.asp)

2. The Center seeks to advance the 
conversation on relations between religion and the state without adopting an 
advocacy or sectarian position. In 
this regard, does the Center still provide an important service or have other 
institutions (either independent advocacy based, academic, or other) taken its 
place? If so, who?

3. What areas in the field should it focus 
its efforts on?

4. Who is the public it should be seeking 
to serve: the general public, religious leaders, practicing members of the bar, 
academics, others?

Thanks for your assistance.
David
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Re: Locke v. Davey Question

2006-01-25 Thread David E. Guinn



I am not sure I understand the distinction between 
devotional and non-devoltional theology separated from the degree it is 
associated with. At the University of Chicago, in pursuing a Masters in 
the constructive study of religion, my "theology" classes were largely 
indistinguishable from a historical philosophy class and, I would think, should 
comfortably fit within the religious studies exemption. However, MDiv 
students (ie. those pursuing a Masters of Divinity as a qualification for 
ministry) took these same classes, along with classes dedicated to 
ministry. Presumably, the problem in Locke was his acknowledgement that he 
was pursuing an MDiv.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Rick Duncan 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Wednesday, January 25, 2006 12:08 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Locke v. Davey 
Question
  
  Awile ago Doug Laycock asked:
  
  To particularize the question, what do they do with 
  Gonzaga?
  
  My research assistant called Gonzaga and asked what they do there 
  aboutstate-fundedscholarships. He was told that they certify that 
  their theology majors are not pursuing a degree in devotional 
  theology.
  
  He also checked at some other religious colleges in Washington, and at 
  least some others certify that their theologymajors are 
  not pursuing a devotional theology degree.
  
  Sothe denominational preference issue seems very much a legitimate 
  one--theology majors at some religious colleges receive state funding, while 
  those at other religious colleges do not. And the preference depends upon the 
  particular denominational viewpoint of theology instruction at religious 
  colleges in the state (or on the subjective process of 
  self-certification).
  
  Cheers, Rick DuncanDouglas Laycock 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  

To particularize the question, what do they do with 
Gonzaga?

Douglas Laycock
University of Texas Law 
School
727 E. Dean Keeton St.
Austin, TX 78705
 512-232-1341 
(phone)
 512-471-6988 
(fax)



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Rick 
DuncanSent: Wednesday, January 11, 2006 9:51 AMTo: Law 
 Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: Locke v. Davey 
Question

This is a factual question about Washington's denial of Promise 
Scholarship funding to students, like Josh Davey, who are pursuing a 
degree in "devotional theology."

Does anyone know whether Promise Scholars at Catholic universities in 
Washington are denied funding if they major in theology or religious 
studies? In other words, if a school like Notre Dame were located in 
Washingto! n, would its theology students be disqualified from the Promise 
Scholarship Program because theology is taught from a "devotional" 
perspective? Or is their approach sufficiently "objective" to escape 
exclusion as "devotional?"

What about a school like Yale and it's Divinity studies program? 
Eligible for funding because not "devotional?"

Rick

Rick Duncan Welpton Professor of Law University of Nebraska 
College of Law Lincoln, NE 68583-0902 

"When the Round Table is broken every man must follow either 
Galahad or Mordred: middle things are gone." C.S.Lewis, Grand 
Miracle"I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, 
debriefed, or numbered." --The Prisoner


Yahoo! PhotosRing in the New Year with Photo 
Calendars. Add photos, events, holidays, 
whatever.___To post, 
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note that messages sent to this large list cannot be viewed as private. 
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the messages to others.
  
  
  Rick Duncan Welpton Professor of Law University of Nebraska 
  College of Law Lincoln, NE 68583-0902
  
  "When the Round ! Table is broken every man must follow either 
  Galahad or Mordred: middle things are gone." C.S.Lewis, Grand 
  Miracle"I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, 
  debriefed, or numbered." --The Prisoner
  
  
  What are the most popular cars? Find out at Yahoo! 
  Autos 
  
  

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Re: Pilgrim Baptist Church

2006-01-15 Thread David E. Guinn



You wrote:

Nevertheless, even if the sort of "formal neutrality" rule espoused in 
Thomas's Mitchell plurality becomes the governing doctrine, as I think 
it will, these cases are still difficult, because there's nothing neutral, or 
objective, about the decision to fund the rebuilding of the Pilgrim Baptist 
Church. Illinois presumably does not rebuild all buildings destroyed by 
fire, or all "community services" buildings, or all churches, for that 
matter. The decision to rebuild this particular structure is very 
subjective, and discretionary. I suppose it's possible that the decision 
to fund would be made completely without regard to the building's status as a 
church, but that seems unlikely, no?: Isn't it at least a strong 
possibility that the state would not pledge a million dollars if the building 
had never been a synagogue and church? And if its religious status 
is part of the reason for the pledge, isn't that a form of religious 
favoritism that is problematic under the EC, even if the Thomas view prevails? 



I agree that this may be classified as discretionary. However, I do 
not necessarily believe that it is driven strictly out of concern for the fact 
that it is a church or synagogue. Illinois -- and Chicago in particular -- 
is very attentive to its architectural heritage. In this case, the Church 
not only has cultural significance to the religious community, but it is also 
valued for its connection with Adler and Sullivan. Louis Sullivan is a 
particularly revered architect here in Chicago. I do believe that the 
state has funded renovation and reconstruction costs for building by Frank Lloyd 
Wright, Sullivan and other famous architects.

I think the equal protection argument lies in the fact that this building 
is valued according to secular standards by people independent of the the church 
as a architectural gem worthy of protection. One may or may not add its 
historical relevance to Chicago to the judgement.

David





  
  - Original Message - 
  
From: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 

Sent: Sunday, January 15, 2006 8:09 
PM
Subject: Re: Pilgrim Baptist 
Church


The case I've seen cited on this issue is Committee for Public Ed. 
 Religious Liberty v. Nyquist, 413 U.S. 756, 777 (1973) which 
says:

"If the State may not erect buildings in which religious 
activities are to take place, it may not maintain such buildings or renovate 
them when they fall into disrepair." Full text at:

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?navby=casecourt=usvol=413invol=756#777

See also Tilton v. Richardson, 403 U.S. 672, 678 (1971) 
available at:

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?navby=casecourt=usvol=403invol=672#678


For a Bush Administration view, see the 2003 DOJ memo titled "AUTHORITY 
OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR TO PROVIDE HISTORIC PRESERVATION GRANTS TO 
HISTORIC RELIGIOUS PROPERTIES SUCH AS THE OLD NORTH CHURCH," at:

http://www.usdoj.gov/olc/OldNorthChurch.htm

Hope that helps

Allen Asch

In a message dated 1/15/2006 3:56:48 PM Pacific Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
I 
  trust that many members of the list may have heard about the tragic fire 
  at the Pilgrim Baptist Church. The church, designed by the firm 
  of Adler and Sullivan, started life as a major synacoge on the South 
  side of Chicago that was eventually taken over by the Pigrim Baptist 
  Congration. Interestingly, the new congregation did not strip the 
  decorative features of the synagogue but instead simply added 
  christian decorative features.The church became a leading 
  institution within the Black community in Chicago and was the birth 
  place of gospel music. It has also become a significant stop on 
  the many archetectural tours that Chicago is famous for. The attached 
  link describes the virtues of the building and the need to 
  rebuild.http://www.chicagotribune.com/news/opinion/chi-0601150287jan15,1,4394171.story?coll=chi-opinionfront-hedYou 
  may have also heard about the controversy. As the news reports puts 
  it: "Gov. Rod Blagojevich, who has stirred the wrath of the American 
  Civil Liberties Union by pledging $1 million in state funds for the 
  church."In order to avoid the first amendment challenge, 
  Blagojevich stated that the grant could only be used for 
  reconstruction of the administrative offices for the church -- which 
  is arguably associated with the community service functions of the 
  church.While I recognize that there are some problems in helping 
  to rebuild a sanctuary, in this case given the existing public uses of 
  the building as a part of the cultural heritage of the city of 
  Chicago, I am not sure that I can distinguish rebuilding 

Re: Can a murderer ever be redeemed?

2005-12-13 Thread David E. Guinn
One can take this a step further and distinguish, as Rawls does, between 
constitutional /democratic contexts (where this type of public reasoning 
occurs) and the cultural background (where it does not.)  It becomes very 
problematic when the standards of public reason are applied to cultural 
background arguments or discourse.


Personally, I'm not sure I see such a bright line between the two and 
believe that cultural background arguments (such as about the 
religious/moral significance of redemtion) will inevitably spill over into 
an influence on legal/constitutional politics.


David

- Original Message - 
From: Sanford Levinson [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Tuesday, December 13, 2005 12:35 PM
Subject: RE: Can a murderer ever be redeemed?


A friendly amendment to Eugene's question is whether anyone on this list
subscribes to the philosopher Robert Audi's
View that conscientious citizens are required to engage in epistemic
abstinence by filtering out any arguments even in their own
consciousness that depend on religious presuppositions.  A more moderate
version is (one understanding of) John Rawl's argument that articulated
arguments must be made in a publicly accessible discourse that rules
out reference to inevitable religious arguments that many members of the
audience would find inaccessible.

Sandy



-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Tuesday, December 13, 2005 12:49 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Can a murderer ever be redeemed?

I agree with Sandy that *this* aspect of the redemption inquiry
is indeed related to the law of government and religion.  (I anticipated
this in some measure when I wrote that we ought to discuss [the
redemption question] only to the extent that it touches on the law of
government and religion rather than suggesting that we ought not
discuss the question at all.)

Yet surely the answer is that it's perfectly legitimate for
people to base either their support or opposition to capital punishment
on religious justifications, just as it's legitimate for people to base
their opposition to murder, slavery, racism, and the like on religious
justification.  Am I mistaken?  Would some on this list argue otherwise?

Eugene


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Sanford
Levinson
Sent: Monday, December 12, 2005 8:43 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Can a murderer ever be redeemed?


I can understand Eugene's point, but let me try this
response:  We spend a lot of time arguing about the extent to which
explicitly theological notions should be allowed to play a part in
political decisionmaking. There are many secular arguments both for
and against capital punishment.
But it seems to me that the possibility-of-redemption
argument ultimately sounds, for many people, in a religious
sensibilty. Does that mean that it is illegitimate to base one's
opposition to capital punishment on it (or, for that matter, a
literal, albeit debatable, reading of Thou Shalt Not Kill), or,
conversely, that it is illegitimate to base one's support for capital
punishment on a biblical notion of eye-for-an-eye retribution?

sandy

-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh,
Eugene
Sent: Monday, December 12, 2005 11:23 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Can a murderer ever be redeemed?

Folks:  This is an interesting question, but it seems to me that on
this list we ought to discuss it only to the extent that it touches on



the law of government and religion.  (What religious people should
think about death penalty law wouldn't, I think, quite qualify.)

Eugene
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Re: Madison on Abridge and Prohibit

2005-11-24 Thread David E. Guinn



I am sorry, but I found this post extremely 
offensive. The only person who was not seriously responsive in this 
exchange was Mr. Garman who seemed to believe that simply because he interpreted 
certain texts in a certain way, everyone else was compelled to adopt the same 
belief. Personally, I found his approach rathernaive and 
unpersuasive. David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Larry 
  Darby 
  To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics' 
  Sent: Wednesday, November 23, 2005 1:30 
  PM
  Subject: RE: Madison on Abridge and 
  Prohibit
  
  
  If you ever do 
  respond directly to the matter, I’ll forward it to Mr. 
  Garman.
  
  Larry 
  Darby
  
  -Original 
  Message-From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas LaycockSent: Wednesday, November 23, 2005 11:25 
  AMTo: Law  Religion 
  issues for Law AcademicsSubject: RE: Madison on Abridge and 
  Prohibit
  
  The post 
  below, although it claims victory,is utterly nonresponsive to Madison's 
  express rejection of any distinction between "respecting," "abridging," and 
  "prohibiting." 
  
  
  Douglas 
  Laycock
  University of Texas Law 
  School
  727 E. Dean Keeton 
  St.
  Austin, TX 
  78705
   512-232-1341 
  (phone)
   512-471-6988 
  (fax)
  
  
  
  
  
  
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  On Behalf Of Gene 
  GarmanSent: Wednesday, 
  November 23, 2005 8:25 AMTo: 
  Law  Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: Re: Madison on Abridge and 
  Prohibit
  Professor Laycock,The First 
  Amendment eviseration of national congressional or governmental power over 
  both religion and speech in terms of either establishment of religion or 
  prohibiting of the free exercise thereof and the abridging of speech is not 
  questioned. Madison's point was Congress had no such power under the religion 
  commandments of the Constitution. Regardless, let the record show, my 
  question which stands unanswered is the meaning of the two different words 
  "prohibiting" and "abridging." I rest my case.Your effort was 
  admirable, but I will continue to promote my position, which I consider 
  supported by examples I routinely use, such as, Jefferson's letter to the 
  Danbury Baptists, Madison's "Detached Memoranda," and the unanimous decision 
  in Reynolds v. U.S., as well as 
  others. I will not pursue the point further on religion.law. It has 
  been a pleasure discussing the issue. Thanks to the attorney who encouraged me 
  to join your listserv and to all of you for allowing my input. You have helped 
  strengthen my position, but I now need to use my time in other 
  ways.Gene Garman, 
  M.Div.americasrealreligion.orgDouglas Laycock wrote:
  You can't 
  duck by pointing to the Article I part of Madison's argument and ignoring the 
  First Amendment part. The structure of his argument was that speech and 
  religion were equally protected by the lack of any Article I power to regulate 
  them, and that the First Amendment could not be read to reduce the equality of 
  that protection. So his premise was equal lack of Article I 
  power, but his conclusion 
  was equal treatment in the FirstAmendment.We now know the 
  premise was wrong; exploring the full implications of Article I powers led 
  Congress to discover many ways to get at speech and religion under powers that 
  did not mention speech or religion explicitly. But the premise was 
  widely assumed when the First Amendment was drafted, and the later failure of 
  the premise does not do much to undermine Madison'scontemporary 
  interpretation of the First Amendment. 
  And he did speak directly to "abridge" and 
  "prohibit." He argued that the difference between "prohibiting" and 
  "abridging" is entirely parallel to the difference between "abridging" and 
  "respecting," which the Federalists claimed enabled them to make laws 
  "respecting" freedom of speech, including the Sedition Act.He was 
  rejecting the Federalistdistinction, so his parallel plainly requires 
  him to reject both distinctions, and the appeal of his argument at the time is 
  precisely that he thought it would be unthinkable to much of his audience to 
  distinguish between "prohibiting" and "abridging." Quoting just 
  the most specific part now, without the larger argument that gives it context 
  and inadvertently gave a means of avoiding the 
  issue:
   
  Fourth. If the words 
  and phrases in the amendment are to be considered as chosen with a studied 
  discrimination, which yields an argument for a power over the press under the 
  limitation that its freedom be not abridged, the same argument results from 
  the same consideration for a power over the exercise of religion, under the 
  limitation that its freedom not be prohibited.
  
   For if Congress may 
  regulate the freedom of the press, provided they do not abridge it, becuase it 
  is said only "they shall not abridge it," and is not said, "they shall make no 

Re: Kansas and Intelligent Design: A Twist

2005-11-22 Thread David E. Guinn

A couple of quick observations:

1.  Insofar as ID claims status as science, then it is fair game for any 
critique -- including one that claims it is myth.  It cannot claim 
protection as religion without surrendering its claim to scientific status.


2.  Religious studies programs commonly study religion as myth.  I am not 
sure what establishment objection could arise in this case that differs from 
those.


David


- Original Message - 
From: Christopher C. Lund [EMAIL PROTECTED]

To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Tuesday, November 22, 2005 1:56 PM
Subject: Kansas and Intelligent Design: A Twist


The University of Kansas is planning to teach a course on intelligent 
design next semester.  But it's not a science class.  It is a 
religious-studies class, and it's titled, Special Topics in Religion: 
Intelligent Design, Creationism and other Religious Mythologies.  (The 
chairman of the department, in explaining the class, said this, 
Creationism is mythology . . . Intelligent design is mythology.  It's not 
science.  They try to make it sound like science.  It clearly is not.) 
It's the next step in the intelligent design/evolution fight.


http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20051122/ap_on_re_us/intelligent_design_course

Does anyone on the listserv see a potential Establishment Clause problem 
here?  Let me be provocative.  Surely, the University of Kansas cannot 
teach that intelligent design is false, right?  Government cannot pass 
directly on the truth or falsity of religious teaching.  The University's 
teaching of ID as myth seems to suggest that it will teach (or at least 
imply) that ID is false.  (Surely, no one would miss the point if some 
professor taught a class entitled, Special Topics in Religion: 
Christianity and other Religious Mythologies or Wicca: How Could It Be 
Something Other Than Mythology?)  To the extent the class teaches ID is 
false, it is unconstitutional, no?


The conclusion that this class is unconstitutional will surely be embraced 
by those who support intelligent design.  And this the counterintuitive 
point: shouldn't it also be embraced by those who are earnest opponents of 
it?  After all, opponents of ID object to it principally because they see 
it as inherently religious.  It's therefore unconstitutional when taught 
by the government as true.  But doesn't the same principle act to protect 
ID from being taught by the government as false?  (The obvious analogy is 
perhaps prayer - the government should have no power to encourage it, but 
also should have no power to discourage it.)


Chris Lund


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Re: Candor

2005-11-08 Thread David E. Guinn



I am afraid that this appears to be a misuse of the 
term. To accuse Eugene of not being candid is to attack his integrety and 
honesty -- i.e. a circuitous way of saying he is lying.

To suggest that Eugene's opinions are biased by his 
world view, does nothing but state the obvious in a somewhat insulting 
way. Obviously, we are all influenced by our environment. The idea 
of this list, it seems to me, is to provide a forum in which we each express our 
ideas and challenge the ideas of others in an effort to better understand the 
issues at stake, the position taken by others and, occassionally be persuaded to 
change or adjust our ideas. 

I haven't seen Eugene do anything other than pursue 
this goal.

At least, that is my perception.

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
  Sent: Tuesday, November 08, 2005 4:24 
  PM
  Subject: Re: Candor
  In a message dated 11/8/05 4:45:37 PM Eastern 
  Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  writes:
  I like to think that I do practice candor. I 
  know you do, Eugene. But I believe that you are influenced by your viewpoints, 
  even though you are unaware of how they are shaping your reactions. And no, 
  Eugene, I cannot point to a single discrete instance, but rather my 
  oberservations based on having been a member of this list since 1996 or 
  1997-ish. And it may well be that this isn't apparent to those who share 
  your general approach--sort of like a fish not feeling water (which, of 
  course, is the difficulty for those in a particular faith tradition). It is 
  hard to empathize with those who are unlike you and the more unlike you 
  someone is the harder it is to empathize. I am moved to compassion more by a 
  fuzzy little Shetland Sheepdog than by an pit bull or an alligator or a house 
  fly. I sympathize with what I have a kinship with or that something I find 
  already appealing. The evangelical doesn't truly "see" the problem 
  with being proselytized because for him or her it isn't a problem. He or she 
  may not like being proslytized by someone of a different faith or religion, 
  but deep down there is an understanding because they only differ on the 
  particulars. Frances R. A. Paterson, J.D., Ed.D.Associate 
  ProfessorDepartment of Educational LeadershipValdosta State 
  UniversityValdosta, GA 31698Cuimhnich air na daoine o'n 
  d'thàinig thu--- Remember the people from whom you came.
  
  

  ___To post, send 
  message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduTo subscribe, unsubscribe, change 
  options, or get password, see 
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Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case, and precential effect of Ninth Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision

2005-09-15 Thread David E. Guinn
It seems to me the thing that distinguishes a holding from an advisory 
opinion is that the holding results from a competently litigated case.  By 
reversing the judgment on the grounds that Newdown lacked standing, the SC 
was also asserting that the case was not competently litigated -- i.e. 
litigated by someone with the interest and standing appropriate to serve as 
the responsible advocate or adversary for the case.


David


- Original Message - 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

Sent: Thursday, September 15, 2005 10:18 AM
Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case,and precential effect of Ninth 
Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision



Yes, of course.  But in that case -- and in light of the fact that the 
*judgment* is not binding on future litigants, or on future courts -- what 
is it, exactly, that makes a holding, or opinion, binding on district 
courts and future panels, in the first place?





The quick answer that comes to mind: Because courts have no authority to
issue holdings apart from judgments in the first place.  That is,
federal courts can't issue advisory opinions apart from a genuine case or
controversy under Article III.



From: Marty Lederman [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case,and precential effect of 
Ninth

Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision
Date: Wed, 14 Sep 2005 20:43:34 -0400

Why is it inconsistent?  Assume a court of appeals that, after briefing 
and

argument, carefully considers the merits question in case A and holds X.
The judgment in case A is not binding on lower courts and future panels
dealing with different parties.  Nor does the judgment have res judicata
effect in such future cases.  The holding X, however, is deemed 
binding

in future cases, precisely because the first panel came to conclusion X
after full briefing, argument and consideration (assuming, of course, 
that
the holding was not contradicted (reversed) by the court sitting en banc 
or

by a higher court).

Now let's say a higher court subsequently determines that the court of
appeals should never have considered case A (or the merits questions) 
at
all -- either becauise the plaintiff didn't have standing, or because 
the
court didn't have jurisdiction, or because the case wasn't ripe, etc. 
The
effect of this reversal, or vacatur, might be that the judgment no 
longer

has any operative effect.  But why should the precedential effect of the
holding change?  After all, it was the court's reasoning -- not its
judgment -- that bound lower courts, and other panels, in future 
cases.



   - Original Message -
   From: A.E. Brownstein
   To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
   Sent: Wednesday, September 14, 2005 7:50 PM
   Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case, and precential effect of
Ninth Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision


   The District Court opinion did not identify a Ninth Circuit rule of
precedent on this issue and seemed to be discussing the question as a
matter of general law. I don't know whether the kind of rule Marty
describes exists here.

   I think Justice Steven's opinion in Newdow reads very much like the
Court does not think the resolution of this case by the Ninth Circuit on
the merits was appropriate. Stevens writes, In our view, it is 
improper
for the federal courts to entertain a claim by a plaintiff  whose 
standing

to sue is founded on family law . . . . When hard questions of domestic
relations are sure to affect the outcome, the prudent course is for the
federal court to stay its hand rather than to reach out to resolve a
weighty question of federal constitutional law.

   That language seems to me to be inconsistent with the idea that the
Ninth Circuit's decision should still be considered binding law in the
Circuit.

   Alan Brownstein




   At 07:12 PM 9/14/2005 -0400, you wrote:

 Severl folks in this thread are writing as if there is some 
 inherent,

or consistent, right answer to the question of whether the CTA9 merits
decision in Newdow is binding on district courts within that 
circuit -- 
or, presumably, on future Ninth Circuit panels -- and whether it makes a
difference that the panel decision was reversed (on prudential 
standing

grounds), rather than vacated.

 But if I'm not mistaken, whether the prior decision is binding in 
 a
future case -- two different questions, really:  whether a lower court 
in

some sense must follow it, and whether it triggers the rules of stare
decisis for future panels of the same appellate court -- is solely a
function of whatever rules of precedent the Court of Appeals chooses to
implement.  These would be analogous to the rules the U.S. Supreme 
Court

has developed to govern (i) when lower courts must follow various
dispositions of the SCOTUS 

Re: proselytization

2004-12-21 Thread David E. Guinn
Ultimately, its seems to me that this exchange boils down to context and
intent.  Almost any word can be used in a way (with appropriate inflection,
intent and context) that makes it appear pejorative.

As a matter of practical concern, I am curious as to what term might be
offered as an appropriate substitute for someone attempting to address the
issue of proselytism (the effort to introduce or convert one person from one
state -- i.e. believer in an alternate tradition or no tradition -- to that
of believer in the faith of the one making the effort) as a legal or social
construct?  For example, evangelism doesn't work in a multi-religious
context because it is a Christian theological term (i.e. proclaiming the
Good News.)  What is the appropriate alternative?

David

International Human Rights Law Institute
DePaul University College of Law


- Original Message - 
From: A.E. Brownstein [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, December 21, 2004 1:59 PM
Subject: Re: proselytization


 I think Bobby's is correct that while the term proselytize is strongly
 associated with religious contexts, that does not mean that the term
always
 has a pejorative meaning. There are obviously benign examples of
 proselytizing that would be effectively described by using this term in a
 non-pejorative sense. Bobby gave some personal examples. There are others.
 When a Jehovah's Witness knocks on my door to discuss religion, I would
 characterize his or her conduct as proselytizing, but I mean nothing
 pejorative when I do so. I have never felt offended or burdened by such
 encounters and have always responded politely to my visitor.

 Also, there are legitimate, non pejorative reasons for using a term to
 distinguish religious advocacy from political or other kinds of advocacy.
 As many list members recognize, religion plays a role in a person's
 identity and life that is seldom if ever matched by secular beliefs. Thus,
 advocacy directed at persuading persons to change their faith urges a more
 fundamental change in the person addressed than occurs in most political
 debates.  Further, there is a one-sided dimension to proselytizing for
 religious purposes that does not exist in political discourse. Some
 religions are committed to proselytizing (as Bobby notes) while other
 faiths, such as Judaism, do not engage in proselytizing. Thus, from the
 perspective of most Jews, proselytizing is a form of advocacy that is
 always directed at them, but which is rarely a part of their own
discourse.
 Such distinctions are less common in political speech where all sides
argue
 the merits of their positions and try to get others to accept their views.

 Still, I think that a term with both benign and pejorative connotations
may
 be understood to reflect only one of its meanings in certain contexts. The
 term discrimination is usually employed in a pejorative way in
 discussions about civil rights and equal protection doctrine, although the
 word obviously has more benign meanings.

 I think the same is true for discussions on this list. It is rare that we
 discuss situations that involve the respectful sharing of beliefs among
 individuals of other faiths. (While many of us have experienced such
 interactions, there is usually no legal dispute that arises out of these
 events.) Much more typically, our discussions will be directed at legal
 disputes involving speech that invokes government support for a religious
 message (e.g. the teaching of religious truth in schools), or an encounter
 where someone is alleged to be taking advantage of their position of
 authority to urge acceptance of religious doctrine, or speech to a captive
 audience etc. When this is the context of most of our discussions, it is
 hardly surprising that the term proselytizing will often carry with it a
 pejorative meaning -- at least when it is employed by list members who
 object to persuasive religious speech in these kinds of circumstances.

 Alan Brownstein
 UC Davis



 At 04:50 PM 12/20/2004 -0500, you wrote:
  Both Webster's Third International and the Shorter OED define
  proselytize as having special application to religious contexts, and
  indicates that the term is not always used pejoratively.  Further, any
  religion embracing the commitment to convert others should be able to
use
  the term in good faith. Why isn't the statement Some (if not all)
  Christian religions encourage (if not require) proselytizing, while
  Judaism frowns on proselytizing. If a person's religion encourages or
  requires her to proselytize, how can the term only apply to the other
guy?
 
 Bobby
 
 Robert Justin Lipkin
 Professor of Law
 Widener University School of Law
 Delaware
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 Please 

Re: Jefferson Quotation

2004-09-21 Thread David E. Guinn



True at the time, but Jefferson clearly altered his thinking from the time 
he attempted to enact his bills on religion in Virginia to the time of his 
presidency where he refused to order days of thanksgiving and wrote his famous 
letter to the Baptists.

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  David W. New 
  
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  Sent: Tuesday, September 21, 2004 2:29 
  PM
  Subject: Re: Jefferson Quotation
  
  In 1779, Thomas Jefferson personally wrote a Sabbath law for Virginia. 
  See The Paper of Thomas Jefferson, Vol. 2., pg. 555.published by Princeton 
  University Press.See"A Bill for Punishing Disturbers of Religious 
  Worship and Sabbath Breakers." Madison was able to get Jefferson's Sabbath Law 
  passed on November 26, 1786. Six months later Madison was in Philadelphia 
  attending the constitutional convention. Apparently, Jefferson believed that 
  religion should influence government law and policy. David W. New, Attorney at 
  Law.
  
- Original Message - 
From: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 

Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Sent: Tuesday, September 21, 2004 2:18 
PM
Subject: Re: Jefferson Quotation



In a message dated 9/21/2004 9:31:12 AM Eastern Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
But 
  what could Jefferson have meant by denying he sought a 
  governmentwithout religion? How would he have allowed religion to 
  manifest itself ingovernment?
Wouldn't this depend 
upon whatDr. William Linn meant by "a government without 
religion"? Speculating on the meaning of this locution,it seems 
the following possibilities exist: (1) Jefferson sought a government where 
law was not derivedfrom religious morality, but rather through the use 
of commonly accepted ideas (including religious ones) subjected to (and 
revised by)the critical scruitiny or reason. (2) Jefferson was a 
decided atheist and wished to divest government of anything smacking of 
religious concepts or values. (3) Jefferson sought to exclude particular 
religions, or the majority religion, frominfluencing government 
decisions. (4) Jefferson sought to exclude religious people from government, 
and (5) Jefferson believed in a sharp distinction between religious morality 
and secular morality. 

From my 
incomplete study of Jefferson, only (1) strikes me as potentially true. What 
are some other possibilities?BobbyRobert Justin 
LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of 
LawDelaware



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Re: The President and the Pope

2004-06-15 Thread David E. Guinn



I agree with Eugene. The reality is that when 
a political leader is talking to a church leader s/he is doing so because the 
church leader represents a political constituancy. While there is a place 
for public negotiations, there is also a time for private talks as well. 
In terms of attempting to negotiate sensitiveproblems it may be better and 
more appropriate to deal in private than in public because in our adversarial 
system the mere agreement to talk is sometimes interpreted as a political 
concession or loss of face. It is unlikely that Jerry Falwell would have 
been willing or able to engage in a serious dialogue with lesbigay leaders in a 
public forum where he would have felt compelled to advance his position for fear 
that the media would misinterpret his meeting with them-- whereas after a 
series of private conversations both reported benefiting from their 
conversations.

The peace negotiations in Ireland leading up to the 
Good Friday agreement were mediated by religious leaders in private. Would 
it have been inappropriate for Clinton to talk to them in private? If the 
anti-abortion movement turns violent again, would it be inappropriate for Bush 
to talk privately to some leaders to seek to calm the situation?

As a Constitutional matter, I agree that I don't 
think this is a serious issue. Talking with religious leaders is no more 
problematic than talking with any other political leadership. Trying to 
coerce them would, of course, be a different matter.

David

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Mark Tushnet 
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Tuesday, June 15, 2004 1:07 
PM
  Subject: Re: The President and the 
  Pope
  I wonder. If (an important qualification) there's 
  something constitutionally sensitive about the general matter we're 
  discussing, I would think that openness would diminish the sensitivity by 
  ensuring that the political leader's religious appeals were exposed to public 
  discussion -- and therefore to the public's evaluation of the constitutional 
  propriety of the leader's actions. And, since we're agreed that this is 
  a context where political discussion is the mechanism by which matters that 
  are constitutionally sensitive are properly handled, openness would seem to 
  make that mechanism more likely to function effectively. (Again, that's 
  why I've included qualifications about a "world of leaks" in my 
  questions.)Volokh, Eugene wrote:
  

 There may well be important political 
differences -- but I don't think there'd be a constitutional 
difference. Sometimes, the best way to bring allies on board is by 
speaking to them publicly. Sometimes, it's by speaking to them 
privately. And sometimes, it's by speaking to them both 
ways.

 If LBJ thought in 1964 that the best way to help promote the 
Civil Rights Act was by calling a leading Southern religious leader and 
asking him to get on board (rather than appealing to him publicly, which 
might risk embarrassing him or putting him on the spot and thus alienating 
him), I don't think there'd be anything wrong with that.

 Eugene

  -Original Message-From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]] 
  On Behalf Of Mark TushnetSent: Tuesday, June 15, 2004 
  10:46 AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
  AcademicsSubject: Re: The President and the 
  PopeNot to ride a hobby-horse too hard, but does 
  Eugene think that there's a relevant difference between public statements 
  (which, if I interpret his examples correctly, is what he's citing) and a 
  private conversation with a religious leader (again, in a world of 
  leaks)?Volokh, Eugene wrote:
  



 I wouldn't say hypocrisy -- I'd just 
say that it's easy even for well-meaning people to (1) see the conduct 
of those they oppose as wrong and even unconstitutional, and think that 
this is so for some objective, nonpolitical reason, but (2) then to 
think better of the matter when they see similar conduct shorn of their 
strong political disagreement with the actor or the actor's proposed 
policies. I know this has often happened to me; that's why 
considering situations where the political polarity is reversed is often 
helpful.

 But as to Marc's suggestion, I don't quite see why the 
distinction he proposes makes a difference. Say that the stories 
read "Vice President Gore today called on church leaders to join with 
the administration in 'healing our land,' and to ask ministers in their 
churches to do the same," or "Mr. Clinton called on religious leaders to 
put the heat on Congress to approve the funding, and to work through 
their ministers and congregations to turn up the heat," or "Clinton 
called on the religious leaders . . 

Re: Michigan Muslim decision

2004-05-14 Thread David E. Guinn



- Original Message - 

  From: 
  Menard, Richard 
  H. 
.. Church bellsdo not 
generally chime for a long stretch five times every day; if they did, you can 
bet most residents, Christians included, would object.


Neither does the call to prayers. And 
whether you find the call to prayers more annoying than church bells seems to be 
a matter of opinion and cultural taste. As someone who appreaciate 
diversity, I like both.

David E. 
Guinn

  
-Original Message-From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]On Behalf Of Derek 
GaubatzSent: Friday, May 14, 2004 11:16 AMTo: Law 
 Religion issues for Law AcademicsSubject: RE: Michigan 
Muslim decision
Sounds like the slippery slope consequences you imagine 
would simply result in more speech. Hardly troubling, unless one has 
something to fear from hearing different ideas 
expressed.


Derek L. Gaubatz
Senior Legal Counsel
The Becket Fund for Religious 
Liberty
1350 Connecticut Avenue, N.W., Suite 
605
Washington D.C. 20036
202 955-0095 phone
202 955-0090 
fax


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]Sent: Friday, May 14, 2004 12:23 
AMTo: Law  Religion issues for Law 
AcademicsSubject: Re: Michigan Muslim 
decision
Thanks. But suppose the permission to the 
muezzins was indeed an exemption from the noise ordinance, and suppose 
some mean old atheists, out of sheer spitefulness, in retaliation for 
the loss of peace and quiet, insisted on an exemption from the noise 
ordinance for chanted calls to reason, enlightenment, progress, and 
moderation? Five times a day, from a huge donated tower to be built 
especially for the purpose? And suppose ~ church bells being 
insufficiently verbal and expressive ~ missionizing Christian bible-beaters 
insisted on an exemption from the noise ordinance so that five times a 
day they could harangue us about brimstone and hellfire from a fleet of 
donated trucks with megaphones? Is it possible given the Capitol 
Square case that we can preserve peace and quiet?LouiseAt 02:10 
PM 5/13/04, Doug Laycock wrote:
 This is private 
  speech; failure to regulate is not establishment. The imam at least 
  claims this is not even an exemption from some noise ordinance or the 
  like; the loudspeaker was already legal and the amendment is 
  clarifying. If he is wrong about that and it is an exemption, of 
  course the exemption would have to be sect neutral. I think it 
  should have to be neutral as between religious and political speech. 
  But it does not have to be neutral as between speech and other sources of 
  noise. And of course the 
  city does not have to broadcast Christian or Jewish messages; it need only 
  refrain from interfering with them. And I would be surprised if it 
  has interfered with them. Church bells are designed to be widely 
  heard for the same purpose, they were not illegal in Hamtramck.At 
  01:33 PM 5/13/2004 -0500, Louise Weinberg wrote:
  I find the below message 
somewhat disturbing. The thought of having amplified Muezzins five 
times a day calling to prayers in my own residential community is 
disturbing. My neighbors and I would be forced repeatedly to talk over 
or stop our ears against intrusive chanted messages from a faith we do 
not share. I fail to see why a town government in America, even 
one in which a majority of the population is Moslem, should be allowed 
to impose religious harangues on the minority of its residents who 
happen not to be Moslems. It is true that these harangues are 
customary in Islamic traditions, but it is the prayers that are a pillar 
of Islam, not the calls to prayer. Once having made such an 
"accommodation," does the town then have to broadcast immediately before 
or after each muezzin call the Hebrew chant, "Hear O Israel, the Lord 
thy God, the Lord is one?" Will an amplified shofar have to be 
blown five times a day? How about The Lord's Prayer? And 
what noise will accommodate the atheists? Unless the atheists are 
allowed to summon their listeners to reason at least five times a day, 
why isn't all this holy racket an establishment of 
religion?At 08:07 AM 5/13/04, Stuart BUCK wrote:
An interesting law out of 
  Hamtramck, Michigan. It apparently amends the noise ordinance 
  there to allow loudspeakers to broadcast Muslim calls to prayer 5 
  times per day. Story here:http://www.latimes.com/news/nationworld/nation/la-na-mosque6may06,1,4014143.story?coll=la-headlines-nationor 
  here:http://www.freep.com/news/locway/call8_200

Re: UU ministers arrested

2004-03-17 Thread David E. Guinn
I think I agree with Doug that there is some merit in separating the
religious and legal aspects of the marriage relationship.  However, it seems
to me that there are two separate components of the marriage process: the
contractual and the solemnization.  I find that idea that the state could
or should demand a secular solemnization as the exclusive means to
consumating the legal requirement to form the contractual relationship very
troubling.  Soleminzation is nothing more then a certain proscribed ritual
layered on top of the documentary requirements of the marriage license
process.  Why mandate that the ritual be conducted solely according to a
secularized version of religion rather than providing couples with an option
to solemnize their wedding according to the ritual most meaningful for them?
So long as couples have an option to undergo a secular ritual - why favor
the one over the other?

David


- Original Message - 
From: David Cruz [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, March 16, 2004 11:38 PM
Subject: RE: UU ministers arrested



 On Tue, 16 Mar 2004, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

  [snip]
  (2)  PUNISHING THE CLERGY FOR VIOLATING A VALID LAW:  Now the question
  is whether the expression of this opinion leaves the clergy open to
  punishment for violating a valid law.  Tom says yes -- but I don't see
  why.  There is a valid law that says that New York doesn't recognize
  same-sex marriages; but that's not a law that the clergy can violate.
  There is also a law that bars people from solemnizing marriages that
  aren't recognized in New York, where solemnization is defined as
  performing a particular ceremony, a ceremony that consists, as I
  understand it, entirely of speech and often of religious practice.  But
  I don't see how New York can ban such speech and religious practice; it
  is *that* law, which bars the clergy from solemnizing the marriage --
  which, as #1 suggests, simply involves saying various words including
  expressing the opinion that under The Right Understanding Of The Law As
  I See It the marriages are valid -- that is invalid.
  [snip]

 I have written and still believe that civil marriage itself is an
 expressive resource, used by private couples, the distribution of which is
 constrained by the First Amendment.  That noted, here is one place where
 it seems -- and my tentativeness is intentional -- that a government
 speech argument might be apt.

 As I understand solemnization, which I have not yet studied extensively,
 it is something said or done on behalf of the government.  Thus, if it's
 not conduct but speech, it is speech done by the deputies or agents of the
 government.  When people purport to be exercising 'authority vested in
 [them] by the State of New York,' wouldn't they literally be speaking for
 the state?  If so, then why couldn't the state impose misdemeanor
 sanctions for misspeaking for the government?  Cf. Rust v. Sullivan
 (holding that government may take steps to make sure its message is not
 garbled).

 Now, this would raise at least two big issues for me.  The first is
 whether the facts of what the clergy at issue did/said sufficiently
 clearly support the government characterization to avoid any
 unconstitutional chilling of bona fide private (and in this case
 religious) speech.

 The second and related point is whether Doug Laycock isn't right that
 there is something troublesome about such a fusion of governmental and
 religious authority.  I had previously thought that perhaps allowing
 clergy to perform the government's solemnization function might be
 justifiable as a form of accommodation, at least loosely speaking.  Many
 people who marry will do so before clergy, and allowing clergy to
 solemnize thus spares the marrying couple the need to go get a separate
 solemnization from a government official.  We might need to read such
 statutes with Seeger/Welch broadness to avoid religious favoritism (as I
 suspect that some marriages are officiated by nongovernmental yet
 nonreligious private parties).  But, even if we did, do prosecutions such
 as New York's suggest that there is an improper entanglement of religion
 and government when it comes to solemnization of marriages?

 David B. Cruz
 Professor of Law
 University of Southern California Law School
 Los Angeles, CA 90089-0071
 U.S.A.

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