Re: Hobby Lobby Question

2014-07-02 Thread Vance R. Koven
I assume that the use of quotes around constitutional fact is meant to
highlight that the phrase is used as an analogy in this situation, which is
governed by a statute and not the Constitution. But partly for that reason,
I think the danger of a jury's refusal to follow a proper instruction on
the irrelevance of a belief's rationality to its sincerity is not likely to
be very significant (since firstly, juries don't usually ignore a judge's
instructions, and secondly, a court can also enter a JNOV if the jury has
obviously gotten it wrong). If the determination of sincerity is left to
courts as some kind of über-fact then I think we really do tread
dangerous ground, since that determination will too often be made on hidden
policy agendas, for administrative convenience, or other factors that we
really don't want to impinge on religious liberty, to say nothing of
investing the courts in determining issues of religion that the
Constitution forbids them to do.


On Tue, Jul 1, 2014 at 12:11 PM, Scarberry, Mark 
mark.scarbe...@pepperdine.edu wrote:

 Maybe this is a constitutional fact, like NY Times actual malice. We
 need to be careful that a trier of fact does not conclude that a party
 isn't sincere just because the trier of fact thinks the belief is so
 obviously wrong that a reasonable person couldn't believe it.

 Mark

 Mark S. Scarberry
 Pepperdine University School of Law


 Sent from my iPad

 On Jul 1, 2014, at 8:30 AM, Vance R. Koven vrko...@gmail.com wrote:

 I have (perhaps incorrectly) assumed that when the Court says *it* should
 not get involved in judging the sincerity of a religious belief, it is
 expressing the proper division of labor between a court and the finder of
 fact. It should be up to the jury (or the court wearing a fact-finder hat)
 to decide whether the belief is sincerely held or not. A trial court can
 easily enough instruct a jury to disregard whether they think the religious
 belief is kooky; but it's perfectly acceptable based on the credibility of
 the witnesses and direct and circumstantial evidence for a jury to
 ascertain whether the claimed religious belief is real or bogus.

 I have often suspected that doctrine in religious liberty cases has become
 quite twisted over time by courts' reluctance to let juries do what they're
 supposed to do.


 On Tue, Jul 1, 2014 at 2:04 AM, Arthur Spitzer artspit...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 I appreciate Steve's response, which I think demonstrates that he is
 precisely rejecting the legitimacy (or perhaps the religiosity) of the
 plaintiffs' beliefs.  The plaintiffs say that their religious beliefs
 prohibit complicity with evil, and that signing a contract that makes
 available certain chemicals or devices to others amounts to complicity with
 evil, because of the use to which such chemicals or devices are most likely
 to be put (terminating what plaintiffs believe is a human life).

 If a court should not accept that assertion without inquiry, then what
 inquiry is it supposed to make?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that complicity
 with evil is sinful?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that terminating a
 human life is evil?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that morning-after
 pills terminate a human life?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that providing the
 means for a person to obtain a chemical or device whose principal purpose
 is to terminate a human life, and that is likely to be used for that
 purpose, counts as complicity in terminating a human life?

 Is there some other inquiry the court should be making that I'm missing?

 Art Spitzer
 PS - My questions should not be taken to imply that I necessarily agree
 with the majority opinion (not that anyone cares), and they certainly do
 not represent the views of my employer.



 *Warning*
 *: this message is subject to monitoring by the NSA.*





 --
 Vance R. Koven
 Boston, MA USA
 vrko...@world.std.com

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-- 
Vance R. Koven

Re: Hobby Lobby Question

2014-07-01 Thread Vance R. Koven
I have (perhaps incorrectly) assumed that when the Court says *it* should
not get involved in judging the sincerity of a religious belief, it is
expressing the proper division of labor between a court and the finder of
fact. It should be up to the jury (or the court wearing a fact-finder hat)
to decide whether the belief is sincerely held or not. A trial court can
easily enough instruct a jury to disregard whether they think the religious
belief is kooky; but it's perfectly acceptable based on the credibility of
the witnesses and direct and circumstantial evidence for a jury to
ascertain whether the claimed religious belief is real or bogus.

I have often suspected that doctrine in religious liberty cases has become
quite twisted over time by courts' reluctance to let juries do what they're
supposed to do.


On Tue, Jul 1, 2014 at 2:04 AM, Arthur Spitzer artspit...@gmail.com wrote:

 I appreciate Steve's response, which I think demonstrates that he is
 precisely rejecting the legitimacy (or perhaps the religiosity) of the
 plaintiffs' beliefs.  The plaintiffs say that their religious beliefs
 prohibit complicity with evil, and that signing a contract that makes
 available certain chemicals or devices to others amounts to complicity with
 evil, because of the use to which such chemicals or devices are most likely
 to be put (terminating what plaintiffs believe is a human life).

 If a court should not accept that assertion without inquiry, then what
 inquiry is it supposed to make?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that complicity with
 evil is sinful?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that terminating a
 human life is evil?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that morning-after
 pills terminate a human life?

 Can a court evaluate and reject the religious belief that providing the
 means for a person to obtain a chemical or device whose principal purpose
 is to terminate a human life, and that is likely to be used for that
 purpose, counts as complicity in terminating a human life?

 Is there some other inquiry the court should be making that I'm missing?

 Art Spitzer
 PS - My questions should not be taken to imply that I necessarily agree
 with the majority opinion (not that anyone cares), and they certainly do
 not represent the views of my employer.



 *Warning*
 *: this message is subject to monitoring by the NSA.*





-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: German circumcision decision

2012-07-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
OK, let's turn this around again. I don't follow Eugene's reasoning here.
If I do for religious reasons what anyone else could do for secular
reasons, why should this be penalized? Seems like a fundamental
equal-treatment issue.

On the second paragraph, Eugene is correct that my point went to
institutional competence and legitimacy. I have little faith in courts to
divine a social or moral consensus that isn't heavily biased in favor of
whatever the upper middle class (the category into which most judges fall)
thinks it knows. In the absence of an affirmative policy decision by
elected representatives, therefore, the rule of decision that imposes the
least harm *to the polity* ought to be that tradition carries prima facie
probative weight. This is especially true in criminal cases, where the
standard of statutory interpretation requires that crimes be clearly
specified--none of this do no harm generalizing!

On Wed, Jul 4, 2012 at 4:24 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

 Sorry for the delay responding – I was traveling Monday
 and Tuesday – but I’m not sure I grasp the argument in the first
 paragraph.  My view is generally this:

 ** **

 (1)  People should generally have the power to make
 medical decisions for themselves.

 (2)  Infants and children can’t make such decisions.

 (3)  Yet some such medical decisions *must* be made
 quickly, before the child becomes mature enough to decide.

 (4)  We therefore delegate this power to make medical
 decisions to the parents.

 ** **

 But this argument hinges on there being medical reasons
 for the decision – I don’t see any reason for parents to have this power
 when they exercise it for nonmedical reasons.  We may defer to a parent’s
 decision, even one we doubt, when it involves a tradeoff of one medical
 risk for another medical risk.  But I don’t see why we should defer to such
 a decision when the parent doesn’t even purport to be making a medical
 judgment, but is just deciding based on the judgment that “God wants me to
 do this” or “I don’t want to give more profits to Big Pharma.”  That’s not
 weighing religious motivation negatively because it’s religious – that’s
 weighing a *nonmedical *motivation negatively compared to a medical
 motivation because the only justification for letting me order someone to
 alter not my body but my son’s body is the need for *medical* judgment.***
 *

 ** **

 This leaves two different arguments.  One is “letting
 people do what they have always done,” which strikes me as weak for the
 reasons I gave in part of my response to Paul Finkelman’s post – especially
 give the longstanding tradition of allowing not just parental decisions
 about surgery for children but also parental decisions about beating
 children, a tradition that I do not think ought to be given much legal
 weight.  The second, which I think is intriguing and might be correct, is
 to have such decisions be made by legislatures directly, rather than by
 judges interpreting general human rights norms.  I’d love to hear more
 thoughts on this institutional question.

 ** **

 Eugene

 ** **

 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Monday, July 02, 2012 10:58 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: German circumcision decision

 ** **

 But isn't saying that you would accept the argument that refusing medical
 treatment because it might do more harm than good the same as saying the
 medical treatment might not be necessary? And if in any particular
 situation you would accept the argument that doing or not doing something
 would be valid if you said it was for medical reasons, and oh by the way to
 do otherwise would be against my religion (and there is independent
 evidence that the medical argument is genuine), then why condemn someone
 who neglects to mention the medical rationale? The medical evidence goes to
 the question of whether, objectively speaking, there is a likelihood of
 harm. If the medical evidence is to the contrary, or if the matter is
 subject to substantial debate, the religious motivation shouldn't be
 weighted negatively, and doing so is simply a point of religious bias
 rather than objective analysis.

 This is why I, like Mark Scarberry, would urge a legal heuristic that
 courts should be biased in favor of letting people do what they have always
 done, unless a democratically accountable legislature has clearly indicated
 the contrary (at which point you could begin analyzing whether the
 legislature has infringed someone's fundamental rights). Nobody in post-war
 Germany has ever prosecuted a doctor or parent (never mind a religious
 official) for performing or permitting a male circumcision, which ought to
 be evidence that the generally

Re: Medical reasons for action vs. religious reasons for action

2012-07-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
I'm not sure who the we is in Eugene's hypothesis, but nobody is
proposing to add anything to defenses, since it's the existence of the *
offense* that is under discussion. Nobody contests that the crime of
murder, or attempted murder, exists with a rather precise definition. There
is as yet no crime of circumcision. Moreover, in looking at the two
situations, it's obvious that the defense of self-defense (which derives
from the same unalienable right to life to which the crime of murder
speaks) contains a mental state within its definition, as does the crime of
murder. If there were a similar mental state in the crime of circumcision
(e.g. removing someone else's foreskin with the intent to do grievous
bodily harm), then one might say that the normal circumcision would never
violate the law, and if the perpetrator did have the requisite intent,
claiming religious justification might well not suffice as a defense.

Of course, a legislature creating a crime of circumcision could decide to
allow medical exemptions  but not to allow a religious one (RFRA arguments,
anyone? Would *Lukumi* apply?), but I still think that would be merely a
trap for the unwary defendant who fails to allege medical motives.

On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 10:46 AM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

 Here’s an analogy from another area in which the normal
 rule – one person may not alter or injure another’s body without permission
 – is relaxed: self-defense.

 ** **

 Say Vic is doing something that Don perceives as
 blasphemous, but that might also be dangerous to Don or Don’s property.
 (E.g., say Vic is burning a Koran and saying things that might reasonably
 lead Don – a Muslim – to think that Vic will imminently injure Don, or that
 the fire will spread to Don’s property.)  Vic attacks Don using nondeadly
 force and injures him.

 ** **

 If Don reasonably believed that Vic was about to injure
 Don, and hit Don to prevent that, Don is not guilty of any crime, by reason
 of self-defense.  But say that the objective circumstances are the same, so
 that Don *could have* reasonably believed that Vic was about to injure
 him, but Don *did not actually sincerely believe this*.  Instead, he says
 that he attacked Vic because he thought God wanted him to attack Vic.  Then
 Don is guilty of assault; no self-defense defense is available (and I take
 it that we’d agree that no other defense should be available to him).  This
 rule does not treat religious reasons for hitting Vic worse than secular
 reasons generally.  But it does treat all reasons for hitting Vic worse
 than one favored secular reason – the perception that Vic poses an imminent
 danger to Don’s person or property.

 ** **

 If I’m right on this, then I all think that there’s no
 violation of the norm of equal treatment when we add another reason for
 allowing one person to alter or injure another’s body: that the actor is
 the subject’s parent and has a medical reason for ordering a surgery to the
 underage child.  That the parent has a right to alter the child’s body for
 medical reasons doesn’t mean he has a right to alter the child’s body –
 even when the objective circumstances seem the same – for nonmedical
 reasons, including religious ones.

 ** **

 Eugene

 ** **

 ** **

 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Thursday, July 05, 2012 7:09 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: German circumcision decision

 ** **

 OK, let's turn this around again. I don't follow Eugene's reasoning here.
 If I do for religious reasons what anyone else could do for secular
 reasons, why should this be penalized? Seems like a fundamental
 equal-treatment issue.

 On the second paragraph, Eugene is correct that my point went to
 institutional competence and legitimacy. I have little faith in courts to
 divine a social or moral consensus that isn't heavily biased in favor of
 whatever the upper middle class (the category into which most judges fall)
 thinks it knows. In the absence of an affirmative policy decision by
 elected representatives, therefore, the rule of decision that imposes the
 least harm *to the polity* ought to be that tradition carries prima facie
 probative weight. This is especially true in criminal cases, where the
 standard of statutory interpretation requires that crimes be clearly
 specified--none of this do no harm generalizing!

 On Wed, Jul 4, 2012 at 4:24 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu
 wrote:

 Sorry for the delay responding – I was traveling Monday
 and Tuesday – but I’m not sure I grasp the argument in the first
 paragraph.  My view is generally this:

  

 (1)  People should generally have the power to make
 medical decisions for themselves.

 (2)  Infants

Re: German circumcision decision

2012-07-02 Thread Vance R. Koven
But isn't saying that you would accept the argument that refusing medical
treatment because it might do more harm than good the same as saying the
medical treatment might not be necessary? And if in any particular
situation you would accept the argument that doing or not doing something
would be valid if you said it was for medical reasons, and oh by the way to
do otherwise would be against my religion (and there is independent
evidence that the medical argument is genuine), then why condemn someone
who neglects to mention the medical rationale? The medical evidence goes to
the question of whether, objectively speaking, there is a likelihood of
harm. If the medical evidence is to the contrary, or if the matter is
subject to substantial debate, the religious motivation shouldn't be
weighted negatively, and doing so is simply a point of religious bias
rather than objective analysis.

This is why I, like Mark Scarberry, would urge a legal heuristic that
courts should be biased in favor of letting people do what they have always
done, unless a democratically accountable legislature has clearly indicated
the contrary (at which point you could begin analyzing whether the
legislature has infringed someone's fundamental rights). Nobody in post-war
Germany has ever prosecuted a doctor or parent (never mind a religious
official) for performing or permitting a male circumcision, which ought to
be evidence that the generally phrased criminal legislation didn't cover
it. The judge's rather high-handed and arbitrary statements that in Central
Europe there are no medical arguments in favor of circumcision do indicate
a mindset that just wanted to take a slap at traditional religious
communities. It's just more legislating from the bench (or the post office).

Vance

On Sun, Jul 1, 2012 at 5:22 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

 I don’t see why it’s “religio-cultural[ly] insensitiv[e]”
 to say that a decision made for medical reasons is permissible but a
 decision made for religious reasons is not; or if it is religio-culturally
 insensitive, I would be proudly religio-culturally insensitive in many
 instances.  (This instance I do find hard, for many reasons, but not for
 the reasons described below.)  For instance, I don’t see why we should
 treat (a) a parent’s refusing necessary medical treatment to a child
 because there’s a plausible argument that the treatment will do more harm
 than good the same as (b) a parent’s refusing such treatment without any
 such explanation but simply because he concludes “we should pray instead of
 performing the medical procedure, and God will take care of things.”
 Perhaps it’s too hard to tease apart such rationales in some situations,
 but as a general matter I would think that courts might quite rightly
 reject rationale (b) even if they accept rationale (a).

 ** **

 Now of course here the situation is not identical –
 indeed, as I’ve argued before, male circumcision is not identical to pretty
 much any other procedure – and perhaps the situation should be different
 when we’re not talking about refusal of necessary medical treatment but
 rather the performance of a medical procedure for which the practical
 effect (with regard to possible loss of sexual sensation) is unknown.  But
 the point is that the mere fact that a decision might permissibly be made
 for plausible medical reasons doesn’t mean that it might permissibly be
 made for religious reasons (or other nonmedical reasons).

 ** **

 Eugene

 ** **

 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Sunday, July 01, 2012 9:38 AM

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: German circumcision decision

 ** **

 Isn't there still a substantial body of medical opinion--perhaps not as
 prevalent as in decades past--that recommends circumcision as a preventive
 health measure? If the issue is the lack of consent from the subject of the
 operation, this certainly affects more than just religious observance, and
 more than just this particular operation. And if the decision hinges
 specifically on the fact that the motivation (if that can ever be clear) is
 primarily religious, that certainly smacks of religio-cultural
 insensitivity, to put it mildly.

 Vance

 On Sun, Jul 1, 2012 at 12:21 PM, Paul Finkelman paul.finkel...@yahoo.com
 wrote:

 Are they also banning parents from piercing the ears of children? In many
 cultures it is common to see infant girls with pierced ears.   Does the ban
 extend to pierced ears before age 18?  And then there is body piercing
 before age 18.  Is that being banned?  Has the Court banned tattoos for
 people under 18?

 ** **

 And has this ban spread to Muslim male children, who are circumcised at
 age 7, 10 or slightly later depending on the sect.  

 ** **

 The fact is, given Germany's history of how

Re: German circumcision decision

2012-07-01 Thread Vance R. Koven
Isn't there still a substantial body of medical opinion--perhaps not as
prevalent as in decades past--that recommends circumcision as a preventive
health measure? If the issue is the lack of consent from the subject of the
operation, this certainly affects more than just religious observance, and
more than just this particular operation. And if the decision hinges
specifically on the fact that the motivation (if that can ever be clear) is
primarily religious, that certainly smacks of religio-cultural
insensitivity, to put it mildly.

Vance

On Sun, Jul 1, 2012 at 12:21 PM, Paul Finkelman paul.finkel...@yahoo.comwrote:

 Are they also banning parents from piercing the ears of children? In many
 cultures it is common to see infant girls with pierced ears.   Does the ban
 extend to pierced ears before age 18?  And then there is body piercing
 before age 18.  Is that being banned?  Has the Court banned tattoos for
 people under 18?

 And has this ban spread to Muslim male children, who are circumcised at
 age 7, 10 or slightly later depending on the sect.

 The fact is, given Germany's history of how it has dealt with Jews, is is
 not illegitimate to wonder what the Court is thinking.   Germany has one of
 the fastest growing Jewish populations in the world -- mostly through
 immigration.  This decision, if enforced all over the country, would slow
 down or stop that population growth.  One might at least ponder why this
 case has come to the Germany court, and not one involving piercing,
 tattoos, or Muslim circumcision.

 
 Paul Finkelman
 President William McKinley Distinguished Professor of Law
 Albany Law School
 80 New Scotland Avenue
 Albany, NY 12208

 518-445-3386 (p)
 518-445-3363 (f)


 paul.finkel...@albanylaw.edu


 www.paulfinkelman.com
   --
 *From:* Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

 *Sent:* Sunday, July 1, 2012 11:56 AM
 *Subject:* RE: German circumcision decision

 Any chance we could have some helpful analysis of the
 decision, rather than one-liners?  The question of the degree to which
 parents should be able to permanently alter their children’s bodies – for
 religious reasons or otherwise – is not, it seems to me, one that has a
 completely obvious answer one way or the other.  There may indeed be one
 correct answer that can be demonstrated, but such demonstration requires
 argument rather than assertion.

 Eugene

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Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: German circumcision decision

2012-07-01 Thread Vance R. Koven
Article 4 of the German constitution (go here: 
https://www.btg-bestellservice.de/pdf/80201000.pdf) protects not only
freedom of conscience, but the equivalent of free exercise (the
undisturbed practice of religion). The court dealt with this in fairly
summary fashion: The parents' fundamental rights under Article 4 (1), 6
(2) of the Basic Law (*Grundgesetz*, GG) in turn are limited by the
fundamental right of the child to physical integrity and self-determination
under Article 2 (1) and (2) sentence 1 GG. No citation, no analysis. It
also cites section 4(1), the freedom on conscience clause, rather than
4(2), the free exercise clause.

The Landgericht is an intermediate state court (note that in addition to
one judge the panel consists of two laymen, both postal employees), from
which there is a further appeal in the state, and thereafter an appeal to
the highest ordinary federal court (Bundesgerichtshof). Reference to the
federal Constitutional Court (Bundesverfassungsgericht) are possible at any
stage once a constitutional issue is properly raised.

Vance

On Sun, Jul 1, 2012 at 2:31 PM, Alan Brownstein aebrownst...@ucdavis.eduwrote:

  I agree with almost of all of Marty's thoughtful post -- except that I
 do not see this as a difficult case. When an attempt was made to place this
 issue on the ballot in San Francisco, some people argued medical and health
 concerns (although as Marty and Paul point out, the evidence here is
 indeterminate and disputed.) But most of the people I spoke with who
 supported the ban did so for almost quasi religious reasons -- a kind of
 don't alter the natural body philosophy -- or on autonomy grounds.



 While I think the autonomy argument isn't entirely frivolous, our legal
 system allows parents to make so many choices for their children that
 substantially impact their physical and mental health, personality, and
 appearance (without being subject to challenge on the grounds that they
 have interfered with the child's autonomy) that I don't assign a lot of
 weight to this interest. The alternative, after all, to having parents make
 these decisions is for the state to do so in their place.



 Finally, of course, there are the obvious consequences for such a ban on
 religious freedom. Laws that require devout religious individuals to
 violate core obligations of their faith at best are intrinsically
 exclusionary. Unless one envisions a world where moderately or seriously
 religious Jews (and Muslims) voluntarily cease to exist, a ban on
 circumcision prohibits those families from living in a community.



 Alan










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-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Religious exemptions and child sexual abuse

2012-06-14 Thread Vance R. Koven
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Re: Defeat of RFRA constitutional amendment in North Dakota

2012-06-13 Thread Vance R. Koven

 ** **



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 --
 **Arthur B. Spitzer
 Legal Director
 American Civil Liberties Union of the Nation's Capital
 4301 Connecticut Avenue, N.W., Suite 434
 Washington, D.C. 20008
 Tel. 202-457-0800
 www.aclu-nca.org a...@aclu-nca.org
 artspit...@gmail.com


 *See Something - Say Something!
 If you see a violation of civil liberties, call the ACLU!*


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Re: PS RE: Defeat of RFRA constitutional amendment in North Dakota

2012-06-13 Thread Vance R. Koven
I should clarify that I was not attempting to address the North Dakota vote
specifically, which of course could have been influenced by a number of
particularized factors, but was addressing Eugene's broader question of why
the RFRA enactment engine nationally seems to be sputtering.

On Wed, Jun 13, 2012 at 8:26 PM, Finkelman, Paul 
paul.finkel...@albanylaw.edu paul.finkel...@albanylaw.edu wrote:

  Among many other reasons it may reflect hostility to Native Americans.

 *Connected by DROID on Verizon Wireless*


 -Original message-

 *From: *Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.edu*
 To: *apos;Law  Religion issues for Law Academicsapos; 
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu*
 Sent: *Wed, Jun 13, 2012 20:49:25 GMT+00:00*
 Subject: *PS RE: Defeat of RFRA constitutional amendment in North Dakota

   I meant to say that Vance’s point about the fears of Muslims and Sharia
 law is surely also part of the explanation. The evangelical rank and file
 conceives religious liberty mostly in terms of their own religious liberty
 – they are certainly not the only ones, but as Vance notes, they are an
 important voting block on this issue – and when attention is focused on
 religious liberty for Muslims instead, many of them will take a different
 view.  So that no doubt affected some votes. But it was NARAL and Planned
 Parenthood that spent the money.



 Douglas Laycock

 Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law

 University of Virginia Law School

 580 Massie Road

 Charlottesville, VA  22903

  434-243-8546


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Re: Analogous Secular Interests

2012-04-23 Thread Vance R. Koven
I always thought the parsonage exemption was a specialized case of the
employer-furnished housing exemption. Unless the rules were changed when I
wasn't looking (and I haven't been looking for quite some time), the rental
value of the on-or-near-campus house a university provides its president
(for example) is excludable from the president's income because it serves
the employer's convenience.

Vance

-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com

On Thu, Apr 19, 2012 at 2:43 PM, Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.eduwrote:

 Bob’s point 1 means the issue won’t arise very often. But when a
 non-theist has a deeply held moral commitment that is analogous to similar
 religious commitments, he ought to be protected.

 ** **

 On point 2, the lack of a sacred text is just a matter of proof, and not
 in itself so important. The lack of an organized body with systematic
 teachings is the bigger proof obstacle. But as most list members know,
 nontheistic objection to military service was protected as a matter of
 statutory interpretation in the Vietnam-era cases.  I fear it would be a
 tougher sell to today’s Court, although Justice O’Connor endorsed those
 cases, apparently as a matter of constitutional law, in her concurring
 opinion in Kiryas Joel.

 ** **

 On point 3, the parsonage allowance is not a protection for conscience and
 really presents a quite different set of issues. It does not relieve a
 burden on the exercise of religion, and it is not part of a neutral general
 category; it is probably a longstanding Establishment Clause violation. But
 it is also likely that no one has standing to challenge it, especially
 after Arizona v. Winn.

 ** **

 It is not available to all employees of the church, but only to ministers.
 So it should not be available to the whole staff of FFRF. But if there are
 employees whose job is to teach a non-theistic belief system to followers,
 or perhaps to proselytize the unconverted, they should be eligible for the
 parsonage allowance. That’s how I would set up the claim if I were
 representing FFRF. 

 ** **

 Douglas Laycock

 Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law

 University of Virginia Law School

 580 Massie Road

 Charlottesville, VA  22903

  434-243-8546

 ** **

 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *b...@jmcenter.org
 *Sent:* Thursday, April 19, 2012 2:15 PM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Analogous Secular Interests

 ** **

 Marty, 

   

 I'm very curious about your reference to analogous secular interests in
 your recent accommodation and pork post. I would appreciate some
 elaboration. 

   

 #1 - This concept occasionally came up at the American Humanist
 Association during the three years that I served as staff attorney. The big
 impediment is that nontheists don't have sincerely held religious
 beliefs, e.g., with respect to foods, clothing, birth control, death
 penalty. Instead, our (atheists, agnostics, freethinkers, secular
 humanists) notions of these items are based on personal preference,
 personal philosophy or (personal) reason. Altho secular humanism was
 mentioned in a footnote in Torcaso v. Watkins (1961) as being a religion,
 its lack of a sacred text or creed make it very difficult -- at law -- to
 be similarly situated. For example, Jewish men wear yarmulke, Muslim women
 a hijab or Sikh men a turban. But a Humanist? In one discussion I had, the
 question was whether a person (any person) who wanted to a baseball style
 cap at work where persons of religion where allowed to wear head coverings
 as an accommodation of religion. The Humanist hypothetically wanted to wear
 the cap simply because (a) he liked it or (b) he was bald -- neither a
 sincerely held religious belief. If a head covering is a head covering is a
 head covering, is not the Humanist entitled to the same civil rights as a
 Jew, Muslim or Sikh? 

   

 #2 - Perhaps a better example would a Humanist who objected to serving in
 the military and killing on humanism grounds. The belief could be sincerely
 held -- but not universally held by Secular Humanists. And again, no sacred
 text to confirm.

   

 #3 - An interesting case is currently being litigated in Wisconsin by the
 Freedom From Religion Foundation in which it is arguing that its Atheist
 personnel (whom the FFRF board authorized a housing allowance) are entitled
 to take the Section 107 parsonage housing allowance exemption on their
 federal income tax returns. 

   

 Bob Ritter 

 Jefferson Madison Center for Religious Liberty 

 A Project of the Law Office of Robert V. Ritter 

 6809 Kincaid Avenue  

 Falls Church, VA 22042  

 703-533-0236   

   


 On April 12, 2012 at 7:15 PM Marty Lederman lederman.ma...@gmail.com
 wrote: 

 Just a slight emendation to Doug's post

Re: Teacher suspended for anti-same-sex-marraige Facebook post

2011-08-20 Thread Vance R. Koven
 Facebook post*
 ***

 ** **

 Mark raises valid concerns.  The questions Steve asks seem to be 
 *Tinker*questions. I think the
 *Tinker* “material disruption” standard almost unavoidably creates some
 risk of a heckler’s veto. It also is implicitly biased against unpopular
 speech which challenges conventional orthodoxy because such speech is far
 more likely to be disruptive than conventional messages expressing generally
 accepted viewpoints.

 ** **

 It may be that these weaknesses in *Tinker* have to be accepted because of
 the school’s legitimate need to maintain order in an institutional setting
 involving hundreds of minors. But these concerns suggest that we should be
 wary of extending a *Tinker* like standard to expression by adults
 expressed outside of the school environment.

 ** **

 Still, that wariness may have some limits. If a teacher in a racially
 integrated school with a history of racial incidents was the recruitment
 officer for the local KKK chapter and used social networking as a
 recruitment tool, would the school be justified in refusing to renew his
 contract?

 ** **

 Alan Brownstein

 ** **

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Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Interesting early W. Va. Att'y Gen. opinion on released time programs

2011-08-08 Thread Vance R. Koven
What I think Mr. Ritter is missing is that the WV AG was not construing the
Federal Constitution, but the West Virginia constitution, whose religion
clause was a much more detailed paragraph than the First Amendment's. The AG
mentions the First Amendment, but seems to do so in a way that does *not*
consider it binding on the state, merely illustrative of a mode of analysis
he favors. My point was that he completely neglected the text before him
(which, as I understand it, is a large part of what Originalists like to
focus on) and jumped in like Rosie Ruiz just before the finish line of his
argument. An Originalist would have started with the text and then tried to
ascertain what its drafters thought they were saying with the words they
used. One consideration in that might be that if all they wanted to do was
copy the Federal First Amendment, why did they indulge in such relative
prolixity?

But as I said, Originalism is a modern doctrine, and I'm not faulting the AG
for not being an Originalist avant le lettre. I do fault him, though, for
assuming his conclusion.

Vance

On Mon, Aug 8, 2011 at 10:29 AM, b...@jmcenter.org b...@jmcenter.org wrote:

 **

 Vance,



  I'm not sure that I understand your comment on Originalism.



  The principle of separation of church and state is a bona fide original
 intent view of the Establishment Clause, notwithstanding David Barton's
 revisonist book Original Intent: The Courts, the Constitution,  Religion,
 3rd., 2000. The problem understanding the scope of the E.C. is that there
 are (1) no contemporaneous (1789) records explaining what respecting an
 establishment of religion means and (2) the phrase itself (not individual
 words) is original, meaning that it had not been previously used. (It is my
 understanding that the 3 Senate members of the joint House-Senate Committee
 agreed to James Madison's insistence that the  wording of the First
 Amendment be retained in exchange for some changes in the wording of other
 amendments. See Founding Faith by Steven Waldman, 2008.) Indeed, the phrase,
 like most of the Constitution and amendments which followed, a political
 compromise.



  But a compromise of what? One House proposal would have withdrawn
 Congress's power on any matters touching religion. Clearly, this would
 have meant separation of church and state. Over the years, I've continued to
 wrestle with the question is respecting equivalent to touching? As a
 separationist, I don't see any significant difference. Rather, I see the
 difference as mere word choice -- that respecting sounds more legalistic
 than touching. However, accommodationists and those of the Christian Nation
 persuasion take a radically different view.



  In the final analysis, in my view, the West Virginia A.G. opinion got it
 right on the basis of Originalism.



  Bob Ritter


 On August 6, 2011 at 9:28 PM Vance R. Koven vrko...@gmail.com wrote:

  What I find interesting is that the AG did absolutely no parsing of the
 constitutional language, in which I couldn't find anything that spoke to
 what released time is. He jumped immediately to the extra-statutory concept
 of separation of State and Church without so much as a case citation to
 support his reading. The US Constitution gives one a lot of room to maneuver
 with its rather vague language, but the WV one doesn't seem to do. Oh well,
 I guess back in the 20s they didn't have modern doctrines like Originalism.

 Vance

  On Sat, Aug 6, 2011 at 8:53 PM, Volokh, Eugene  vol...@law.ucla.edu  wrote:


  I just came across this 1926 opinion, which I hadn’t heard, and which I
 thought might be of interest.



 Eugene





  31 W. Va. Op. Atty. Gen. 344

  Office of the Attorney General   State of West Virginia

   March 15, 1926


 *SCHOOLS—Pupils Cannot be Excused During School Periods to attend
 Religious Instruction.*

 Hon. George M. Ford
 State Superintendent of Schools
 Charleston, West Virginia

 Dear Sir:


 You submit to this office for opinion the following question:

 “Can we constitutionally excuse children from the regular work of the
 school during the school periods, to attend classes conducted by religious
 denominations for religious instruction?”


 Your question was prompted by a communication which you enclose, from Mr.
 George H. Colebank, of Beckley, Superintendent of Schools of Town District.
 It appears from his letter that the school officers and ministers of the
 churches in the City of Beckley have under consideration a plan of
 introducing religious instruction at the beginning of the next school year
 for the children in the public schools whose parents would give permission
 to be excused from the schools for one or two periods each week, to attend
 various churches for religious instruction.

 This presents a question which must be approached with some trepidation
 because it relates to religious instruction, and the sacred rights
 vouchsafed in our State Constitution, superinduced by the experiences

Re: Interesting early W. Va. Att'y Gen. opinion on released time programs

2011-08-08 Thread Vance R. Koven
I agree that there is an element of both in it. I wanted to avoid suggesting
that Justices Scalia, Thomas and Alito were really Deconstructionists--they
would undoubtedly find the prospect horrifying--but the concept of original
intent, at least to my somewhat dilettantish eyes in following the
intellectual history of Constitutional doctrine, seems to want to start with
parsing the specific text in the context of contemporaneous usage.

On Mon, Aug 8, 2011 at 11:30 AM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 **
 Vance-- Small point--  Aren't you confusing originalist with
 textualist?  I would have thought an originalist would be interested in
 the history behind the language as well as the language, while the
 textualist would eschew the history to focus on the language.

 Marci


 Marci A. Hamilton
 Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
 Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
 Yeshiva University
 55 Fifth Avenue
 New York, NY 10003


  In a message dated 8/8/2011 11:12:52 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
 vrko...@gmail.com writes:

 What I think Mr. Ritter is missing is that the WV AG was not construing the
 Federal Constitution, but the West Virginia constitution, whose religion
 clause was a much more detailed paragraph than the First Amendment's. The AG
 mentions the First Amendment, but seems to do so in a way that does *not*
 consider it binding on the state, merely illustrative of a mode of analysis
 he favors. My point was that he completely neglected the text before him
 (which, as I understand it, is a large part of what Originalists like to
 focus on) and jumped in like Rosie Ruiz just before the finish line of his
 argument. An Originalist would have started with the text and then tried to
 ascertain what its drafters thought they were saying with the words they
 used. One consideration in that might be that if all they wanted to do was
 copy the Federal First Amendment, why did they indulge in such relative
 prolixity?

 But as I said, Originalism is a modern doctrine, and I'm not faulting the
 AG for not being an Originalist avant le lettre. I do fault him, though, for
 assuming his conclusion.

 Vance


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Boston, MA USA
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Re: Interesting early W. Va. Att'y Gen. opinion on released time programs

2011-08-06 Thread Vance R. Koven
 and reason the
 church should be separate and distinct from the State, and those who are its
 members should exercise their rights under and within the State, as
 individuals, and not as a church.

 This is supported by the teachings of the Bible as contained in what we
 call the New Testament. One who has a proper conception of the church must
 look upon it as the body of Christ of which He, Christ, is the head, each
 and every member of which having experienced the regenerating power of the
 Holy Spirit are incorporated into His mystical body.

 The Great Apostle Paul, through the revelation of the Holy Spirit, has
 wonderfully distinguished in his epistles, the Church from the world and
 worldly things, (including governmental organizations); in other words, the
 complete separation of State and Church. Christians are those who have been
 born again through the atoning blood of the Lord Jesus, and are commanded to
 separate and to keep themselves unspotted from the “world” used here is a
 very broad term, and includes every thing which is not Christian in
 character. A *believer*, although in the world, is not of the world, but,
 in the sight of God, is seen and looked upon as in His very presence. The
 word *religion* is a very broad term, and in our common parlance may
 include Christianity, but all religions are not Christian, and Christianity
 should never be confused with religion.

 The principle of State and Church Separation, having been inculcated into
 the minds and hearts of those who stood for religious freedom, and a
 complete divorcement of Church and State found its way into our
 Constitutions, Federal and State; a principle supported by Holy Writ.

 This being true then, we cannot see wherein school authorities can enter
 into any kind of an arrangement whereby the children of schools supported by
 the State can divide their time between the State and Church *within the
 time required by statute to be in the public schools for instruction.* 
 Furthermore,
 it may be that facilities are not at hand for all religious creeds.

 History reveals a constant conflict between religious creeds and beliefs,
 from which the present generation is not free, followers of which are
 conscientious and sincere. These creeds and beliefs relate to man's
 relationship to the Deity, and cannot be changed by statutory laws or
 administrative regulations, nor by forms or ceremonies but, in the opinion
 of the writer, only as the Lord Jesus Christ makes the *contact* between
 God and Man.

 We are not unappreciative of the fact that this effort upon the part of
 ministers, and the school officers, of Beckley, was prompted by the purest
 motives, having only in mind proper religious instruction and betterment for
 the youth, but no doubt this arrangement is not authorized by the law, and
 its sanction might be a step in the direction of an encroachment upon a well
 established and much desired principle, which we hope may continue, namely,
 a complete divorcement of Church and State.

 For these reasons, I would hold that such an arrangement as is contemplated
 is not warranted by law.
 Very truly yours,

 Howard B. Lee
 Attorney General

 By R. A. Blessing
 Assistant

 

 ** **

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-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Wills that state they are to be interpreted under religious law

2011-04-29 Thread Vance R. Koven
 that requires
 discrimination based on sex, religion, race, and the like, when it is doing
 so in the course of interpreting a will, contract, etc., on the theory that
 the court is simply effectuating the author’s discriminatory preferences
 rather than itself engaging in constitutionally suspect discrimination?



 Eugene
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Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Gamaliel: A Historical Question

2011-02-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
The Wikipedia entry gives the English pronunciation with a long, stressed
second a, but from the Greek entry (the Hebrew I leave to others, since,
obviously, it has no vowels) I'd guess that in other languages the second a
would be short, or at least an ah sound.

Gamaliel the Elder (English pronunciation: /ɡəˈmeɪljəl/),[1] or Rabbi
Gamaliel I (גמליאל הזקן; Greek: Γαμαλιήλ ο Πρεσβύτερος)

Vance

On Fri, Feb 4, 2011 at 12:55 PM, Ed Darrell edarr...@sbcglobal.net wrote:

 Sorta off topic question:  How do you pronounce Gamaliel?  Is there a
 story to how Warren Harding got that for a middle name?

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas

 --- On *Fri, 2/4/11, Wallace, E. Gregory walla...@campbell.edu* wrote:


 From: Wallace, E. Gregory walla...@campbell.edu
 Subject: RE: Gamaliel: A Historical Question
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Date: Friday, February 4, 2011, 11:36 AM


  Tolerationists during the period often referred to Gamaliel. For example,
 see John Goodwin's tract, Theomachia; or The Grand Imprudence of men running
 the hazard of fighting against God (1644). Dirck Coornhert is another. (see
 Gerrit Voogt, Constraint on Trial: Dirck Volckertsz Coornhert and Religious
 Freedom (2000), at 118). Also, check out the discussion on theological
 fallibilism in John Coffey's Persecution and Toleration in Protestant
 England 1558-1689 (Longman, 2000) at pp. 65ff.

  Greg Wallace
 Campbell University School of Law
  --
 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Nathan Oman [
 nate.o...@gmail.com]
 *Sent:* Friday, February 04, 2011 11:17 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Gamaliel: A Historical Question

  I have a question for those of you who are familiar with early modern,
 e.g. 16th and 17th century, debates over religious toleration.  Do you know
 of any writers that used the story of Gamaliel as a justification for
 toleration.  In the NT, Gamaliel is a Pharisee who argues against the
 persecution of the early Christians on the grounds that if there work is not
 of God it will perish but if it is of God one would be sinning in acting
 against it.  Either way, the best course of action is toleration.  (See Acts
 5)  I am just wondering if it was every invoked in polemics about religious
 toleration.
 
 Nathan B. Oman
 Associate Professor
 William  Mary Law School
 P.O. Box 8795
 Williamsburg, VA 23187
 (757) 221-3919

 I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
 mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell

 -Inline Attachment Follows-


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Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Gamaliel: A Historical Question

2011-02-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
Well, Google Books is a wonderful thing. Here's a snip from Warren G.
Harding, by John Wesley Dean:

[His mother] Phoebe wanted to name him Winfield but her husband preferred a
family
name: Warren Gamaliel. Warren was Tyron's grandmother's
maiden name, and Gamaliel an uncle's name that would prove to
be prophetic. In the Bible, Gamaliel was noted for counseling
moderation and calmness.

On Fri, Feb 4, 2011 at 3:48 PM, Ed Darrell edarr...@sbcglobal.net wrote:

 Why didn't I think of that.

 Still curious about President Harding -- if anyone stumbles into the
 information, let me know!

 Thanks.

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas

 --- On *Fri, 2/4/11, Vance R. Koven vrko...@gmail.com* wrote:


 From: Vance R. Koven vrko...@gmail.com
 Subject: Re: Gamaliel: A Historical Question
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Date: Friday, February 4, 2011, 1:30 PM

 The Wikipedia entry gives the English pronunciation with a long, stressed
 second a, but from the Greek entry (the Hebrew I leave to others, since,
 obviously, it has no vowels) I'd guess that in other languages the second a
 would be short, or at least an ah sound.

 Gamaliel the Elder (English pronunciation: /ɡəˈmeɪljəl/),[1] or Rabbi
 Gamaliel I (גמליאל הזקן; Greek: Γαμαλιήλ ο Πρεσβύτερος)

 Vance

 On Fri, Feb 4, 2011 at 12:55 PM, Ed Darrell 
 edarr...@sbcglobal.nethttp://mc/compose?to=edarr...@sbcglobal.net
  wrote:

 Sorta off topic question:  How do you pronounce Gamaliel?  Is there a
 story to how Warren Harding got that for a middle name?

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas

 --- On *Fri, 2/4/11, Wallace, E. Gregory 
 walla...@campbell.eduhttp://mc/compose?to=walla...@campbell.edu
 * wrote:


 From: Wallace, E. Gregory 
 walla...@campbell.eduhttp://mc/compose?to=walla...@campbell.edu
 
 Subject: RE: Gamaliel: A Historical Question
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduhttp://mc/compose?to=religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 
 Date: Friday, February 4, 2011, 11:36 AM


  Tolerationists during the period often referred to Gamaliel. For example,
 see John Goodwin's tract, Theomachia; or The Grand Imprudence of men running
 the hazard of fighting against God (1644). Dirck Coornhert is another. (see
 Gerrit Voogt, Constraint on Trial: Dirck Volckertsz Coornhert and Religious
 Freedom (2000), at 118). Also, check out the discussion on theological
 fallibilism in John Coffey's Persecution and Toleration in Protestant
 England 1558-1689 (Longman, 2000) at pp. 65ff.

  Greg Wallace
 Campbell University School of Law
  --
 *From:* 
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.eduhttp://mc/compose?to=religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu[
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.eduhttp://mc/compose?to=religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu]
 on behalf of Nathan Oman 
 [nate.o...@gmail.comhttp://mc/compose?to=nate.o...@gmail.com
 ]
 *Sent:* Friday, February 04, 2011 11:17 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Gamaliel: A Historical Question

  I have a question for those of you who are familiar with early modern,
 e.g. 16th and 17th century, debates over religious toleration.  Do you know
 of any writers that used the story of Gamaliel as a justification for
 toleration.  In the NT, Gamaliel is a Pharisee who argues against the
 persecution of the early Christians on the grounds that if there work is not
 of God it will perish but if it is of God one would be sinning in acting
 against it.  Either way, the best course of action is toleration.  (See Acts
 5)  I am just wondering if it was every invoked in polemics about religious
 toleration.
 
 Nathan B. Oman
 Associate Professor
 William  Mary Law School
 P.O. Box 8795
 Williamsburg, VA 23187
 (757) 221-3919

 I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
 mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell

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 Boston

Re: Gamaliel: A Historical Question

2011-02-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
Sounds a bit like a W.S. Gilbert rhyme to me.

On Fri, Feb 4, 2011 at 7:59 PM, Will Linden wlin...@panix.com wrote:

 Bredon went to Balliol
 And sat at the feet of Gamaliel

  Dorothy Sayers, Murder Must Advertise

 ... followed by hail you all, jail you all.



 On Fri, 4 Feb 2011, Ed Darrell wrote:

  Sorta off topic question:  How do you pronounce Gamaliel?  Is there a
 story to how Warren Harding got that for a middle name?

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas

 --- On Fri, 2/4/11, Wallace, E. Gregory walla...@campbell.edu wrote:

 From: Wallace, E. Gregory walla...@campbell.edu
 Subject: RE: Gamaliel: A Historical Question
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 
 Date: Friday, February 4, 2011, 11:36 AM






 Tolerationists during the period often referred to Gamaliel. For example,
 see John Goodwin's tract, Theomachia; or The Grand Imprudence of men running
 the hazard of fighting
  against God (1644). Dirck Coornhert is another. (see Gerrit Voogt,
 Constraint on Trial: Dirck Volckertsz Coornhert and Religious Freedom
 (2000), at 118). Also, check out the discussion on theological fallibilism
 in John Coffey's Persecution and Toleration
  in Protestant England 1558-1689 (Longman, 2000) at pp. 65ff.



 Greg Wallace
 Campbell University School of Law



 From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Nathan Oman [
 nate.o...@gmail.com]


  Sent: Friday, February 04, 2011 11:17 AM


  To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics


  Subject: Gamaliel: A Historical Question





 I have a question for those of you who are familiar with early modern, e.g.
 16th and 17th century, debates over religious toleration.  Do you know of
 any writers that used the story of Gamaliel as a justification for
 toleration.  In the NT, Gamaliel is
  a Pharisee who argues against the persecution of the early Christians on
 the grounds that if there work is not of God it will perish but if it is of
 God one would be sinning in acting against it.  Either way, the best course
 of action is toleration.  (See
  Acts 5)  I am just wondering if it was every invoked in polemics about
 religious toleration.


  


  Nathan B. Oman


  Associate Professor


  William  Mary Law School


  P.O. Box 8795


  Williamsburg, VA 23187


  (757) 221-3919



  I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
 mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


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 Will Linden  wlin...@panix.com
 http://www.ecben.net/
 Magic Code: MAS/GD S++ W++ N+ PWM++ Ds/r+ A- a++ C+ G- QO++ 666 Y
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Re: TRO against Oklahoma no use of Sharia Law

2010-11-10 Thread Vance R. Koven
 as
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 posted; people can read the Web archives; and list members can (rightly or
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Boston, MA USA
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Re: TRO against Oklahoma no use of Sharia Law

2010-11-10 Thread Vance R. Koven
... 'In this world Elwood, you must be Oh So
  Smart, or Oh So Pleasant.' Well for years I was smart -- I recommend
  pleasant.  You may quote me. --Elwood P. Dowd
 
 
 
  - Mary Chase, Harvey, 1950
 
 
 
 
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Re: Is a patient who believes Jesus would save [me] competent to refuse life-saving medical treatment?

2010-07-17 Thread Vance R. Koven
 an unequivocal desire to live.



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Re: Free Exercise Clause trumps Fair Housing Act, when applied to a homeless shelter that gives preferential treatment to people who go to its religious services

2010-05-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
 at 
 946http://web2.westlaw.com/find/default.wl?tf=-1rs=WLW10.05referencepositiontype=Sserialnum=1999263081fn=_topsv=Splitreferenceposition=946findtype=Ytc=-1ordoc=2021983991mt=LawSchooldb=506utid=1vr=2.0rp=%2ffind%2fdefault.wlpbc=89BCE499.
 For example, “[a] secular court may not ... adjudicate matters that
 necessarily require it to decide among competing interpretations of church
 doctrine, or other matters of an essentially ecclesiastical nature, even if
 they also touch upon secular rights.” *Id.* (citations omitted). “A
 church's selection of its own clergy is one such core matter of
 ecclesiastical self-governance with which the state may not constitutionally
 interfere.” *Id.*



 The Court finds the following activities of the Rescue Mission to also be
 among the religious interests that are so strong that no compelling
 governmental interest justifies intrusion into the ecclesiastical sphere:
 teaching, preaching, and proselytizing to individuals on its own property;
 treating preferentially guests on its property who attend religious
 services; limiting participation in a residential addiction recovery program
 to individuals who are or who wish to be of the same faith; and imposing
 requirements that guests and residents on its property attend and/or
 participate in religious services and activities



 [T]he FHA already recognizes a religious exemption from its requirements,
 demonstrating that in some circumstances, religious discrimination is
 allowed under the FHA.



 As discussed above, the Rescue Mission's operation of the shelter and the
 Discipleship Program does not fall within the FHA's religious exemption only
 because the Rescue Mission does not limit occupancy of the shelter and
 residency in the Discipleship Program to persons of the same religion, or
 give preference to such persons. Although the Rescue Mission does not
 qualify for the FHA's religious exemption, the Court finds that recognizing
 an exemption from the FHA under the circumstances of this case would not
 impede the purpose of the FHA.



 Last Fall, the court reached a similar result under the RFRA,
 http://religionclause.blogspot.com/2009/09/religious-homeless-shelter-and.html;
 but following the plaintiffs’ motion to alter or amend the decision – which
 apparently argued that RFRA didn’t apply to civil cases in which the
 plaintiff is not a governmental entity – the court reframed its arguments as
 relying solely on the Free Exercise Clause.



 Any thoughts on the decision?



 Eugene

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Re: Faith Base Banking

2010-05-11 Thread Vance R. Koven
In that case, they should be careful what they wish for: Hebrew National's
claim was that their standards were *stricter* than the government's, not
that they were exempt from them.

On Mon, May 10, 2010 at 7:37 PM, verizon alanarmstrong@verizon.netwrote:

 I think the bank was claiming something like Hebrew National's we answer
 to a higher authority.
 That is, they would be more friendly, transparent, and helpful than other
 banks. Maybe they would keep the borrower from getting a loan that could not
 be repaid.

 Alan

 Law Office of Alan Leigh Armstrong
 18652 Florida St., Suite 225
 Huntington Beach CA 92648-6006
 714 375 1147 faz 714 782 6007
 a...@alanarmstrong.com
 Serving the family and small business since 1984





 On May 10, 2010, at 2:51 PM, Vance R. Koven wrote:

 I don't see any particular connection to religion at all here. Everybody
 seems to be saying they were in compliance with banking regulations, the
 securities laws and anything else they've been charged with violating. If
 there is going to be a claim that being a religious bank means they don't
 have to abide by whatever lending criteria the law establishes (and if they
 were out of compliance, I'd like to know what Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac's
 excuse was), it would strike me as both a last refuge of a scoundrel issue
 and a possible estoppel issue if they didn't make any exemption claims when
 obtaining their banking licenses (I don't know what regulations would apply
 to the borrower--there are already cases that hold a bank loan is not a
 securities transaction to which Rule 10b-5 would apply).

 There are, however, religious banks, in the sense of banks that apply
 religious law to their products, chiefly Islamic banks that structure
 products around the interest prohibition. Of course, Western banks also deal
 in such products for clients to whom the religious prohibitions matter.
 However, the NYT article doesn't suggest that Integrity was claiming a
 Christian loan is one that doesn't need to be repaid.

 Vance

 On Mon, May 10, 2010 at 2:30 PM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 Sounds like religious insurance.  They typically argue they should not
 have to abide by regulations and they discriminate on the basis of religion
 in hiring and in choosing customers

 As I remember there is a religious exemption for religious insurers in the
 health care law.

 Marci
 Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry

 -Original Message-
 From: Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu
 Date: Mon, 10 May 2010 11:13:12
 To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Subject: RE: Faith Base Banking

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 vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Faith Base Banking

2010-05-10 Thread Vance R. Koven
I don't see any particular connection to religion at all here. Everybody
seems to be saying they were in compliance with banking regulations, the
securities laws and anything else they've been charged with violating. If
there is going to be a claim that being a religious bank means they don't
have to abide by whatever lending criteria the law establishes (and if they
were out of compliance, I'd like to know what Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac's
excuse was), it would strike me as both a last refuge of a scoundrel issue
and a possible estoppel issue if they didn't make any exemption claims when
obtaining their banking licenses (I don't know what regulations would apply
to the borrower--there are already cases that hold a bank loan is not a
securities transaction to which Rule 10b-5 would apply).

There are, however, religious banks, in the sense of banks that apply
religious law to their products, chiefly Islamic banks that structure
products around the interest prohibition. Of course, Western banks also deal
in such products for clients to whom the religious prohibitions matter.
However, the NYT article doesn't suggest that Integrity was claiming a
Christian loan is one that doesn't need to be repaid.

Vance

On Mon, May 10, 2010 at 2:30 PM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 Sounds like religious insurance.  They typically argue they should not have
 to abide by regulations and they discriminate on the basis of religion in
 hiring and in choosing customers

 As I remember there is a religious exemption for religious insurers in the
 health care law.

 Marci
 Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry

 -Original Message-
 From: Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu
 Date: Mon, 10 May 2010 11:13:12
 To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Subject: RE: Faith Base Banking

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Boston, MA USA
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Re: UK Jewish school denies racial discrimination - Yahoo! News

2009-10-31 Thread Vance R. Koven
Indeed. And in order to uphold the racial discrimination charge, does the
court have to rule that the mother is not, in fact, Jewish, because Judaism
is defined under British law as an ethnic group rather than a religion?
That, it seems to me, is the principal error here. If the father had
converted to Christianity instead of the mother to Judaism, would it still
be racial discrimination to keep the boy out?

Vance

On Sat, Oct 31, 2009 at 5:27 AM, Joel Sogol jlsa...@wwisp.com wrote:

 So who decides the criteria for being Jewish?  The court or the Rabbi?

 http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20091027/ap_on_re_eu/eu_britain_jewish_school



 Joel Sogol


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Re: Jonathan Turley op-ed about US acceptance of limitation on free expression for negative religious stereotyping

2009-10-22 Thread Vance R. Koven
That the resolution can be interpreted differently is precisely what's wrong
with it. Nobody later asks what Senator so-and-so thought the bill he voted
for meant, the bill becomes law and the text takes on a life of its own.
While this resolution is not self-enforcing, it becomes another little blob
in the pudding that is customary international law. When a court is asked to
find what that law is, among other things it considers the history of
international pronouncements such as this. In a close case--did the
defendant's words seem likely to result in discrimination against a
particular religion--such considerations could become quite important.
Consequently, for the US to support such a resolution, even with fingers
crossed, is a grave mistake. This is not a situation in which fine
distinctions should be significant.

On Thu, Oct 22, 2009 at 10:10 AM, Friedman, Howard M. 
hfri...@utnet.utoledo.edu wrote:

  The reality is more complex than this op-ed suggests.  The resolution
 included language that could be interpreted differently by different sides
 in the debate. Islamic countries have been pressing for years to introduce
 the conept of defamation of religion into international law.  The UN Human
 rRghts Council resolution (co-sponsored by the US and Egypt) does NOT use
 this term. Instead it speaks of racial and religious stereotyping of
 individuals that incites discrimination or violence. This is a concept
 something like that in US hate crimes laws. The crucial distinction is that
 religions, as opposed to individuals, do not have rights against defamation.
 (This is also complicated by the fact that earlier drafts of the resolution
 at one point referring to stereotyping used the term religon in one place
 where it should have used religious.)  More information is at this post on
 Religion Clause (which has been updated to reflect the later draft that uses
 the term religious correctly):

 http://religionclause.blogspot.com/2009/10/cns-news-reports-that-on-friday-united.html


 *
 *Howard M. Friedman*
 Disting. Univ. Professor Emeritus
 University of Toledo College of Law
 Toledo, OH 43606-3390
 Phone: (419) 530-2911, FAX (419) 530-4732
 E-mail: howard.fried...@utoledo.edu
 *

 --
 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu on behalf of Scarberry, Mark
 *Sent:* Thu 10/22/2009 3:36 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Jonathan Turley op-ed about US acceptance of limitation on free
 expression for negative religious stereotyping


 http://blogs.usatoday.com/oped/2009/10/column-just-say-no-to-blasphemy-laws-.html

 This appears to be a disastrous decision by an Obama administration that
 very much should know better.

 Mark Scarberry
 Pepperdine

 cross posted to conlawprof

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Boston, MA USA
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Re: An interesting application of the no religious decisions principle of First Amendment law

2009-10-09 Thread Vance R. Koven
It may just be residual morning fog on my brain, but why wouldn't estoppel
be a secular principle by which a court could determine that, whether or not
the parties were validly married under Hindu custom in 1952, if for fifty
some-odd years they behaved as though they had been, then nobody is now in a
position to challenge that marriage?
Vance

On Fri, Oct 9, 2009 at 12:54 AM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

  *Madireddy v. 
 Madireddy*http://www.nycourts.gov/reporter/3dseries/2009/2009_07232.htm,
 decided Tuesday (and to my knowledge not covered by any other media) by a
 New York intermediate appellate court:

 In an action for a divorce and ancillary relief, the defendant appeals, and
 the intervenor separately appeals, by permission, from an order of the
 Supreme Court, Nassau County (Falanga, J.), dated September 9, 2008, which,
 after a nonjury trial, determined that the plaintiff and the defendant were
 validly married in India in 1952.

 ORDERED that the order is reversed, on the law, with one bill of costs, and
 the complaint is dismissed.

 The defendant correctly contends that a determination as to whether he and
 the plaintiff were married in a valid Hindu ceremony in India in 1952
 improperly involves the court in a religious matter. Such a determination
 cannot be made on the basis of neutral principles of law. “The neutral
 principles of law’ approach requires the court to apply objective, well
 established principles of secular law to the issues.”

 The parties’ marriage allegedly took place in 1952, prior to the enactment
 in India of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955, which codified Hindu Law
 relating to marriage and divorce.

 The validity of the parties’ alleged marriage, entered into in 1952, must
 be determined by analyzing the various and customary rites, customs, and
 practices of the Hindu religion of a particular caste in a particular
 region. This analysis is entrenched in religious doctrine and cannot be
 resolved by the application of neutral principles of law. When a religious
 dispute cannot be resolved by application of neutral principles of law,
 without reference to religious principles, the First Amendment to the United
 States Constitution prevents the court from resolving the issue. “Such
 rulings violate the First Amendment because they simultaneously establish
 one religious belief as correct for the organization while interfering with
 the free exercise of the opposing faction’s beliefs.”

 The Supreme Court determined which ceremonies are sufficient and necessary
 for a valid Hindu marriage between members of the Reddy caste of Sudras in
 the region of Andhra Pradesh, India, in 1952. This is a distinctly religious
 determination. The court essentially determined that performance of the
 ceremonies testified to by the plaintiff constitute a valid Hindu marriage
 between these parties, and that the defendant’s assertions to the contrary
 are incorrect. Thus, the Supreme Court was called upon to settle a religious
 controversy, not only to interpret and apply Indian law. “[T]his court is
 without jurisdiction to consider this issue because to do so would require
 the court to review and interpret religious doctrine and resolve the
 parties’ religious dispute, which the court is proscribed from doing under
 the First Amendment entanglement doctrine.” Accordingly, the order must be
 reversed and the complaint dismissed.

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Re: Evaluating candidates based on their religious views

2009-09-22 Thread Vance R. Koven
I suspect that the analysis here is based on something even more fundamental
than constitutional law, which is republican government theory. Since in a
republican polity the people *are* sovereign, constitutional analysis is
limited to the institutions and processes the people select to effect their
chosen governmental structure. Therefore, although a constitution can
specify that organs of state can determine qualification to vote, and what
sorts of things voters can do directly (e.g. referendums), the direct powers
and the limitations on the powers of governmental bodies have to be driven
by the sovereign public. One example of how this plays out is in amendments:
assuming one follows the methodology prescribed by the constitution, a
constitutional amendment can't itself be unconstitutional. All of which is
a long way of saying that Eugene is specifically right that if the people
wanted the institutions of government to be able to limit the motivations on
which voters can vote, the constitution would have to specify that pretty
clearly as a limitation on popular sovereignty.
The difference between collusively voting for or against someone based on
religion (or any other criterion) and collusively voting to enact a law that
only people fulfilling a particular criterion are eligible for a position,
is the difference between direct sovereign conduct and the manipulation of
governmental institutions. Since the constitution describes how the latter
can be done, failing to do it that way makes the action subject to
constitutional attack. Contrast a collusive vote (if this were possible) to
amend the constitution to require the same thing that the putative law would
require, and that would be (at least legally) unassailable.

Vance

On Tue, Sep 22, 2009 at 3:28 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

 The last question reminds me of Justice Powell’s dissent
 in *Branti v. Finkel*, where he pointed out that “The voters of Rockland
 County are free to elect their public defender and assistant public
 defenders instead of delegating their selection to elected and appointed
 officials. Certainly the Court's holding today would not preclude the
 voters, the ultimate hiring authority, from choosing both public defenders
 and their assistants by party membership. The voters' choice of public
 officials on the basis of political affiliation is not yet viewed as an
 inhibition of speech; it is democracy. Nor may any incumbent contend
 seriously that the voters' decision not to reelect him because of his
 political views is an impermissible infringement upon his right of free
 speech or affiliation. In other words, the operation of democratic
 government depends upon the selection of elected officials on precisely the
 basis rejected by the Court today.”



Yet that didn’t carry the day, presumably because voters –
 the sovereign – are entitled to make election decisions on bases that
 government officials may not use in appointment decisions.  This may be
 especially unappealing when the basis is race or religion, as opposed to
 ideology, but I think the underlying constitutional analysis must be
 similar:  The voters’ choice of public officials on any basis the voters
 please, and not just ideology, is democracy.  Surely if, to borrow from *
 Ricci*, black voters give preference to black candidates over more
 qualified white or Hispanic candidates – for any office, high or low – that
 is no constitutional violation.



Eugene



 Alan Brownstein writes:



 I don’t have a satisfactory analysis of this issue either, but there are
 lots of interesting hypos that push the edge of the envelope. Two examples:



 Would the primary of a political party limited to candidates of a
 particular faith be constitutional?



 By analogy to the firefighter’s Title VII case from last term. The names of
 the top ten candidates for promotion to Captain or other leadership
 positions in the fire department (the candidates who scored highest on the
 exams and tests used for promotions) are submitted to the voters for
 approval. All candidates of a particular religion (or race) are regularly
 rejected by the electorate, even if they have the highest scores. Are these
 promotion decisions constitutional?



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Re: Evaluating candidates based on their religious views

2009-09-22 Thread Vance R. Koven
I'm not entirely sure how this relates to the distinction I drew, but it
seems to me that any rule that pertains to what the *government* can do
within a constitutional framework in which your hypos are not hard-wired is
subject to constitutional scrutiny: so if a law (not a constitutional
amendment) says that voters have to approve all contracts, grants,
employment agreements, and so forth, then if the law were a subterfuge for
otherwise impermissible discrimination, one might raise constitutional
objections. If the basic structure of the polity (for example, a provision
in the constitution) required this type of voter approval, then there would
be no recourse other than to 1) lump it; 2) try to change it by whatever
means were available for amending it; 3) find a more congenial polity. In
other words, if all you have to fall back on is some notion of natural
justice, that's not, um, justiciable.
Have I understood your point correctly?

On Tue, Sep 22, 2009 at 7:05 PM, Brownstein, Alan
aebrownst...@ucdavis.eduwrote:

  I don’t doubt that there is a line here, but I’m having a lot of trouble
 drawing it.  Is the critical fact that voters are rejecting individuals one
 at a time while discriminatory policies operate more generally (sort of a
 distinction between administrative and legislative action)? And are we only
 talking about voters rejecting individuals who work directly for the
 government? What about voter rejection of individual contracts with
 suppliers of goods because of the supplier’s race or religion? What about
 government grants? Would it be constitutional to require that every grant a
 state provided to a non-profit organization must be subject to voter
 approval even though that results in the consistent rejection of grants to
 faith-based organizations representing minority religions? What about
 referenda reviewing land use decisions? Would there be a constitutional
 problem if the voters continually rejected zoning for the houses of worship
 of minority faiths while they approved similar zoning requests for the
 houses of worship of more popular faiths?



 Alan Brownstein







 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Tuesday, September 22, 2009 1:43 PM

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Evaluating candidates based on their religious views



 I suspect that the analysis here is based on something even more
 fundamental than constitutional law, which is republican government theory.
 Since in a republican polity the people *are* sovereign, constitutional
 analysis is limited to the institutions and processes the people select to
 effect their chosen governmental structure. Therefore, although a
 constitution can specify that organs of state can determine qualification to
 vote, and what sorts of things voters can do directly (e.g. referendums),
 the direct powers and the limitations on the powers of governmental bodies
 have to be driven by the sovereign public. One example of how this plays out
 is in amendments: assuming one follows the methodology prescribed by the
 constitution, a constitutional amendment can't itself be unconstitutional.
 All of which is a long way of saying that Eugene is specifically right that
 if the people wanted the institutions of government to be able to limit the
 motivations on which voters can vote, the constitution would have to specify
 that pretty clearly as a limitation on popular sovereignty.



 The difference between collusively voting for or against someone based on
 religion (or any other criterion) and collusively voting to enact a law that
 only people fulfilling a particular criterion are eligible for a position,
 is the difference between direct sovereign conduct and the manipulation of
 governmental institutions. Since the constitution describes how the latter
 can be done, failing to do it that way makes the action subject to
 constitutional attack. Contrast a collusive vote (if this were possible) to
 amend the constitution to require the same thing that the putative law would
 require, and that would be (at least legally) unassailable.



 Vance

 On Tue, Sep 22, 2009 at 3:28 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu
 wrote:

The last question reminds me of Justice Powell’s dissent in
 *Branti v. Finkel*, where he pointed out that “The voters of Rockland
 County are free to elect their public defender and assistant public
 defenders instead of delegating their selection to elected and appointed
 officials. Certainly the Court's holding today would not preclude the
 voters, the ultimate hiring authority, from choosing both public defenders
 and their assistants by party membership. The voters' choice of public
 officials on the basis of political affiliation is not yet viewed as an
 inhibition of speech; it is democracy. Nor may any incumbent contend
 seriously that the voters' decision not to reelect him

Re: EEOC says Catholic College Discriminated by Removing Contraceptive Coverage from Health Insurance

2009-08-15 Thread Vance R. Koven
Whatever else may be right or wrong with Gilbert or the statute, Griswold
was a constitutional claim based on the flat prohibiting by legislation of a
form of birth control for women, whereas the EEOC finding in Belmont Abbey
is a matter of what the college will fund as part of its private health
insurance. Presumably women are still free to obtain contraception on their
own nickel.
Have we ascertained that the Belmont Abbey insurance policy, and the
college's internal policy, permitted men to obtain condoms and/or more
medically-oriented forms of birth control (e.g. vasectomies, spermicides)?
If so, then there's a live sex-discrimination issue. If not, then the EEOC
decision may be subject to question.

Vance

On Sat, Aug 15, 2009 at 5:10 PM, Steven Jamar stevenja...@gmail.com wrote:

 I'm not sure how paul arrives at his characterization of my response to an
 inquiry of another in which I sketch a possible way a court could go wrong.

 Nonetheless, it seems to me that even though Gilbert was overturned by
 legislation, the legislation did not in fact reach the illogic of the
 court's reasoning, but rather the outcome of that reasoning.
 While I think that a court that would reason as I hypothesized one might
 would be wrong in doing so in light of the dialogue between the Court and
 Congress(see boumediene), I fear I have seen such toturing of laws often
 enough to not consider such error to beyond the realm of possibility.

 I guess I don't quite see how a statute based claim with EP overtones would
 impact a constitutional liberty-based privacy claim, though at times we do
 cross those sorts of boundaries.


 Stev

 Sent from Steve Jamar's iPhone


 On Aug 15, 2009, at 1:57 PM, Paul Finkelman paul.finkel...@yahoo.com
 wrote:


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Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

2009-08-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
Yes indeed, and between drinking and alcoholism and liver damage (although
in these cases I believe there are specific biochemical reactions that have
been identified, which is not the case with abuse and later violence)--but
notice that our sad experience attempting to criminalize liquor production
and consumption (which, incidentally, was accompanied by a religious
exception) has so far still warded off anything more than warnings and the
occasional civil recovery in the case of tobacco. A lesson to be learned
here, I think.

On Wed, Aug 5, 2009 at 11:55 AM, Sanford Levinson
slevin...@law.utexas.eduwrote:

  Wouldn’t Cathleen’s argument also apply to the relationship between
 smoking and cancer, given that one cannot predict with certainty that any
 given smoker will in fact come down with lung cancer?



 sandy


  --

 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Dr. Cathleen A. Mann
 *Sent:* Wednesday, August 05, 2009 10:44 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics

 *Subject:* Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment



 Yes, but what is being said is that there is a direct connection between
 childhood abuse and later criminal behavior.  There is also an assumption
 that there is science to 'prove' this when there is not.  I would very much
 like to see the brief you mentioned in one of your earlier posts.  If you
 can send it to me or point me to it somewhere, I would like to read it.I
 am open to being educated and proven wrong.

 Cathleen A. Mann, Ph.D
 1880 S. Pierce St. Unit 7
 Lakewood, CO 80232
 (303) 934-2828
 Secure Fax: (303) 934-2892

 This email is the intellectual property of the author.
 Please do not forward in whole or in part without first obtaining
 the express permission of the author.


 - Original Message -
 From: hamilto...@aol.com
 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Wednesday, August 5, 2009 9:18:30 AM GMT -07:00 US/Canada Mountain
 Subject: Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment


  Cathleen--   No one on this list to my knowledge is claiming that there
 is a sure way to make predictions regarding any particular individual.  Your
 persistence in making that argument is off-point.  In any event, there are a
 lot of MDs and PhDs out there at Harvard, Yale, Stanford, etc., etc., that
 would find your blanket attacks on the studies regarding the effects of
 abuse very odd and unsupportable.



 Marci


  --


 ___ To post, send message to
 Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or
 get password, see
 http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw Please note
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Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

2009-08-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
To some degree the argument is circular. As between unconsenting adults, it
is certainly black-letter common law that any touching is a battery and any
credible threat of it is an assault. However, under various guises, the law
has also traditionally recognized some kind of privilege as between parent
and child. The discussion here can be read to be about the scope of the
privilege. Since most child-abuse cases will arise under state law, a
common-law privilege might be relevant, and inasmuch as any claim for
religious exemption would fall either under pre-Smith state religious
freedom doctrine or a state RFRA, in states where these apply, centrality
(responding here in part to Mark Scarberry) ought not to be an issue.
As a fan of common-law approaches to religious freedom issues, you might
find this line of reasoning attractive.

On Tue, Aug 4, 2009 at 1:07 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

  It also seems noteworthy to me that one of the arguments on
 the list for having any bruise-inflicting corporal punishment of children be
 criminal was equally applicable to minor spanking as well.  The argument
 was, “I have to wonder if there is anyone on this list who would not
 consider it a battery (or assault depending on what your state calls what
 used to be common law battery) if someone deliberately hit them to the point
 of bruising them.  Sounds like a tort or a crime to me, and I find it hard
 to imagine how a claim of religious belief would justify it.  I suppose
 adults could consent to such interpersonal behavior. but since children
 cannot legally consent to such harms, I have to wonder how Vance can justify
 such abuse.”  But I take it that everyone on the list would consider it a
 battery if someone spanked them even without bruising them, no?



 So when the logic of the arguments suggests the illegality of
 *all* corporal punishment, it seems reasonable for people who support some
 corporal punishment to think that the other side’s position would go beyond
 just prohibiting bruising.



 Eugene





 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Tuesday, August 04, 2009 7:01 AM

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment



 Actually, it didn't. It began with an inquiry into what level of insult (in
 the broadest sense) to a child should be prosecuted as child abuse
 regardless of the justification based on religious or even secular concepts
 of parental discipline. I was attempting to draw a distinction between
 serious harm and minor bruises--my example was a black-and-blue bum, which
 of course would normally heal quickly. That *is* spanking. My suggestion is
 that the harm to the child be proven as a matter of fact, rather than
 presumed as a matter of law, in order to avoid defects in the legal adoption
 of theories that should not be graven in stone.

 On Mon, Aug 3, 2009 at 9:21 PM, Paul Finkelman paul.finkel...@yahoo.com
 wrote:

 Art:

 This discussion began with a defense of bruising children. That is hardly
 spanking.  I think if you look at those beyond death row -- simply violent
 criminals - you will find abuse in almost every circumstance.


 
 Paul Finkelman
 President William McKinley Distinguished Professor of Law
 Albany Law School
 80 New Scotland Avenue
 Albany, NY 12208

 518-445-3386 (p)
 518-445-3363 (f)

 pf...@albanylaw.edu

 www.paulfinkelman.com

 --- On *Mon, 8/3/09, artspit...@aol.com artspit...@aol.com* wrote:


 From: artspit...@aol.com artspit...@aol.com


 Subject: Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Date: Monday, August 3, 2009, 9:08 PM



 Because a few seriously abused children become murderers, society needs to
 prohibit spanking?


 In a message dated 8/3/09 9:05:21 PM, hamilto...@aol.com writes:



  Paul is correct here.  If you want to evidence of the causal connection
 between the home situation and criminal behavior, read the files of the
 individuals who are on death row.  Not infrequently, it is hard to figure
 out who acted more heinously -- the parents of the death row inmate or the
 death row inmate himself.  I'm not saying that home circumstances should
 be an adequate defense to murder.  Rather, as a society it is foolish not to
 make every effort to stem harm to children.






 **
 A Good Credit Score is 700 or Above. See yours in just 2 easy steps! (
 http://pr.atwola.com/promoclk/100126575x1222846709x1201493018/aol?redir=http://www.freecreditreport.com/pm/default.aspx?sc=668072hmpgID=115bcd=JulystepsfooterNO115
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Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

2009-08-03 Thread Vance R. Koven
I certainly am not saying that atheists *should* be prohibited from
restraining their children, I was merely observing that there doesn't seem
to be a well-developed constitutional doctrine whereby they could prevail
against a legislative move to ban it, whereas there does seem to be such a
doctrine with respect to religious parents. And I'm also not suggesting that
corporal punishment is necessary or desirable in most, or even perhaps many,
cases; but the push to ban it entirely, even in the absence of clear harm to
the child (or based on an exaggerated tendency to find psychological harm)
against conscientious parents who feel a religious compulsion to adhere to
Biblical or traditional models smacks to me of class and religious
prejudice.

On Mon, Aug 3, 2009 at 11:28 AM, Steven Jamar stevenja...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Aug 3, 2009, at 9:50 AM, Vance R. Koven wrote:

 [snip]
  After all, a parent's glowering is useless without at least the implied
 credible threat of direct action if diplomacy fails.


 This is a highly contestable statement at least to the extent it implies
 the necessity of corporal punishment with respect to many if not most
 children.  It may well be true that with some children if you spare the rod
 you spoil the child (even if you aren't an old testament adherent the
 principle may be sound), but with some if you use the rod you teach
 violence, and with others you never ever need corporal punishment.  Some
 restraint of the child's freedom may be necessary at times, but even that is
 not needed with at least some children.  And for others corporal punishment
 will not ever do any good.

 As to my prior point -- even if parental control was premised on religious
 teachings (and is for many people still), that hardly makes the case that
 the constitutional right of parents to control their children's upbringing
 is based in freedom of religion.  Again, do you mean to suggest that
 atheists have no rights to control their kids?  That statutes relating to
 age of emancipation are constitutionally valid only as to religious
 adherents?  That Jewish kids are emancipated at age 14?

 Or are the statutes not unconstitutional for another reason?  Surely
 parental rights derive at least in part from IXth Amendment, even if you
 don't like the right of privacy as a basis.  (I submit that that is a
 terminology problem here -- the parental rights existed and exist under
 every theory of constitutional interpretation since the adoption of it, even
 if the term privacy is of recent vintage.

 Steve


 --
 Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox:  202-806-8017
 Associate Director, Institute of Intellectual Property and Social Justice
 http://iipsj.org
 Howard University School of Law   fax:  202-806-8567
 http://iipsj.com/SDJ/

 Hope is not the conviction that something will turn out well, but the
 certainty that something makes sense regardless of how it turns out.
 *-- Vaclav Havel.*








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Boston, MA USA
vrko...@world.std.com
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Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

2009-08-03 Thread Vance R. Koven
To me, scientific principles are to be avoided in anything to do with the
law. Phrenology and eugenics (sorry, Eugene) were once state-of-the-art
science. Communism was considered scientific. Having been trained as a
social scientist, I can tell you that those two words don't even belong in
the same sentence, much less cheek by jowl. All the so-called sciences that
deal with human behavior suffer from the same defect: for ethical and
sometimes logistical reasons, we cannot subject people to a rigorously
applied scientific methodology, and we cannot adequately isolate the thing
being tested from the millions of other things that influence behavior.
That's why so many of the scientific studies on virtually every topic are
contradicted by other equally scientific studies. It does not require a
suspicion of bad faith to draw the conclusion that science and human
behavior are no better than nodding acquaintances; and every so often actual
bad faith, prejudice and hubris manifest themselves in the investigation and
interpretation of social studies (and even hard sciences). Just imagine if
all those scientific truths had been ensconced in a legal system based on
stare decisis? It's bad enough when legislative *policy* is based on science
that proves an embarrassment fifty or fewer years later--which to some
extent is a necessity--but to send people to jail based on crackpot
pseudoscience, is something every decent society should resist. A degree of
self-awareness and humility would go a long way here.
Based on my admittedly anecdotal experience (but I've accumulated an awful
lot of anecdotes over my life), children subjected to traditional
child-rearing and discipline, short of battering and other major harm, will
turn out fine or twisted, as their natures dictate. Same story with children
raised on progressive principles.

I realize this has strayed a bit from the original question, but I think it
does relate to the deference the law should show--under a unified theory or
multiple theories--to parents' choices of disciplinary philosophy. The law
*ought* to defer to secular parents as much as to religious parents, but the
latter should not be denied this deference just because the law has tied
itself in knots over the basis for such deference to the former.

Vance

On Mon, Aug 3, 2009 at 11:38 AM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 In response to Vance's question---Yes, objective standards are available
 from scientific sources.  The question is whether a child is being harmed,
 and the level of harm can be determined by the extraordinary amount of
 research that is being done in the child abuse/child wellness arena.
 Legislatures are capable of drawing the line on the basis of these objective
 standards, and courts are capable of factfinding on the basis of experts.
 Obviously, there will be gray areas, but the scientific information goes a
 long way to rebutting the implicit claims by those protecting
 parental rights that children's well-being is improved by pain and/or
 browbeating.  Thus, the issue is children's rights to bodily integrity and
 protection from serious harm vs. parental rights to control their
 children.  That balancing is built into the law via Pierce v. Society of
 Sisters and Prince v. Massachusetts.

 Marci


 -Original Message-
 From: Vance R. Koven vrko...@gmail.com
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Sun, Aug 2, 2009 9:57 pm
 Subject: Re: FW: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

 Well really, I think some of you are assuming your conclusions. Whether
 something is child abuse is what is to be determined, not what is to be
 assumed.
  Those of us of a certain age may recall being spanked. It did no lasting
 harm, and may have done considerable good. However, whether it did or not,
 it was not considered a matter for state intervention, and civilization did
 not collapse on that account.

  The question is not, as Marci thinks, whether the law takes the side of
 the parent or the child, it's whether and under what conditions the law
 (i.e., the state) takes it unto itself to take sides and to intervene in
 intra-family affairs. We have consensus on serious bodily harm, maybe even
 on visible physical injuries like black eyes or bloody noses; when you get
 into speculating about psychological and social injuries it starts to
 shade over into state ownership of children. My smaller point is that
 religions have always had rather a lot to say about the relationships within
 families, particularly between parents and children, which is a zone that a
 free exercise clause worthy of the name ought to respect. And my larger
 point was, and remains, whether the state is bound, regardless of any other
 consideration (such as religious freedom) to take whatever view of
 child-rearing the secular upper middle class decides at any given moment to
 take. We have developed a rather Dickensian, and some might say irrationally

Re: The impropriety of religious exemptions to child abuse laws

2009-08-03 Thread Vance R. Koven
 intervenes
  shouldn't be determined by whether the parent is acting out of
  religious or secular motives, it is only in the case of religiously
  motivated parents that there is a legal hook on which to hang an
  interest in parenting methodology that requires the state to justify
  itself on the basis of compelling interest--unless you can engineer a
  free speech interest, which seems to me a stretch. It would be ironic
  indeed if the justification for parental authority is the concept of
  privacy.
  _
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Re: FW: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment

2009-08-02 Thread Vance R. Koven
 issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Wisconsin convicts parents for denial of medical treatment



 I



 --



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Re: still waiting for concrete examples

2009-06-22 Thread Vance R. Koven
To say nothing of a race discrimination case, since this condition
apparently primarily affects African Americans.
Is this where the phrase too clever by half comes in?

Vance

On Mon, Jun 22, 2009 at 8:29 PM, Steven Jamar stevenja...@gmail.com wrote:

 well, out of rfra and into ada?  since it is a medical necessity not to
 shave, the state runs into ada.  it would seem that a closely cropped beard
 would meet the medical need as opposed to a long beard which could be a
 bigger problem.
 steve

 On Mon, Jun 22, 2009 at 8:24 PM, artspit...@aol.com wrote:




 It would have been very hard to prove the Department's bad motivation.
 The Fire Department would have argued that our case made it reexamine the
 facial hair issue, and it concluded that safety required everyone to be
 clean-shaven.  (That's essentially what it did say.)
 And I'm not so sure that issuing a religion-neutral regulation because
 your lawyer advises you that if you continue to make medical exceptions
 you'll also have to make religious exceptions makes the regulation
 non-neutral.  It's not as if there was no support for the Department's
 safety argument.  There was support.

 Art Spitzer


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 (IIPSJ) Inc.

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Re: NY Religious Corporations Law

2009-03-12 Thread Vance R. Koven
Having statutes with apparently mandatory organizational provisions directed
at religious organizations is problematic for the reasons Doug and the other
signatories of the Connecticut letter mention. There are subtler but none
the less troubling issues if a state says that a religious organization can,
if it wishes to incorporate, use the generic nonprofit corporation law,
without providing ample opt-out provisions for those aspects of the normal
corporate structure that conflict with the religion's tenets. By and large,
this isn't an issue when the statute allows the charter or bylaws to
override statutory defaults, since an individual church can implement any
changes in organization later mandated by the church's denomination without
resort to any public body. Where such opt-out is lacking, though, there
might be a problem of unconstitutional conditions, since the benefits of
limited liability and perpetual existence have long since ceased to be
discretionary with the state just by virtue of its issuing a corporate
charter. When Madison vetoed the Arlington church's charter, that wasn't the
case--corporations had to be chartered by special act of the legislature.

It seems to me that income tax exemption, whether federal or state, is a
different issue entirely. Exemptions, at least at the federal level (many
states simply rubber-stamp the federal exemption), are not entirely
ministerial for the general run of nonprofit organizations (and there's no
requirement that the organization be incorporated). It seems that the only
mandatory provisions noted on Form 1023 regarding organizational structure
require a statement of exempt purpose and a commitment to using the
organization's assets solely for exempt purposes on dissolution. I'm not
aware of cases where these requirements have been challenged by anyone on
religious grounds. I'm also not sure whether the organization would have to
satisfy the same non-inurement tests that, say, an educational or civic
organization would; if so, these might provide grounds for religious
objection.

On Thu, Mar 12, 2009 at 10:56 AM, Friedman, Howard M. 
hfri...@utnet.utoledo.edu wrote:

  Probably the earliest development of the corporate form in Roman law and
 English law was the corporation sole that permitted property to pass from
 one bishop to the next when the bishop died. This avoided the inheritance
 problems that would be present if title were held in the personal name of
 the bishop.  Some of the same issues would likely arise if religious
 entities today tried to operate in non-corporate form. Beyond this, do we
 really want clergy holding property, often purchased with funds from their
 congregants, in their own names with the potential for abuse that this could
 pose? Also, to the extent that religious corporation statutes impose greater
 restrictions on incorporated churches than are imposed on other
 incorporated non-profits and charities, isn't there an equal protection
 problem?

 Howard Friedman

 --
 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu on behalf of hamilto...@aol.com
 *Sent:* Wed 3/11/2009 3:57 PM
 *To:* religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 *Subject:* Re: NY Religious Corporations Law

  The question here is whether you can satisfy the rule against judicial
 oversight of ecclesiology and permit the states to serve their
 legitimate interest in overseeing those that obtain corporation status.
 Religious entities need and/or want to be able to operate with the
 benefits of a corporation, including property ownership by an entity
 that surpasses the lives of any particular individuals and limited
 liability. Incorporation is voluntary, so why isn't there an argument
 that if they choose incorporation and its benefits, they have to
 agree to certain state oversight? While it is relatively easy to point
 to potential constituitonal difficulties in the laws as written, there
 are difficult issues getting the balance correct.

 Marci

 Marci A. Hamilton
 Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
 Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
 Yeshiva University
 55 Fifth Avenue
 New York, NY 10003


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Re: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

2008-11-20 Thread Vance R. Koven
 and read messages that are
 posted; people can read the Web archives; and list members can (rightly or
 wrongly) forward the messages to others.




-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

2008-11-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
We've discussed this a bit on the list before, but I don't see why in
principle religious courts should not be treated pretty much as commercial
arbitration is: as a consensual alternative to the state legal system (with
enforcement permissible through the national courts where required). In all
such cases, the national legal system provides an umbrella of protections,
including among other things the necessity for consent and honesty in
obtaining the agreement by which the parties submit to the alternative
jurisdiction.

It should not be an objection in most instances that the substantive rights
of the parties differ from the norms of the secular courts. There are very
few rights, even constitutional ones, the exercise of which in particular
circumstances cannot be waived. For example, people waive their free speech
rights in private contexts all the time (think of non-disparagement clauses
and even confidentiality agreements, including those attached to litigation
settlement agreements); they waive statutory rights such as
nondiscrimination rights and antitrust rights; and so on. Some things cannot
be waived, such as one's right to be free as opposed to enslaved, but of
course this is understood to be a matter of the perpetuity of the
arrangement--any employment agreement restricts one's freedom of action to
an extent--and the mechanism for enforcement (prohibition of contrary
employment rather than specific performance). One also is restricted in
waiving rights of third parties (e.g. one's children), which might create
some issues under religious law. Still, the general principle ought to be
that as to the consenting party an agreement to refer most matters to
religious courts ought to be upheld and enforced by the secular courts.

I frankly don't see what Matthew or Luke (or Mark or John, for that matter)
have to say on the matters quoted below have to do with the subject.

Vance

On Wed, Nov 19, 2008 at 9:37 AM, JOHN LOFTON [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Can religious  secular courts exist in the same nation? Excellent question
 the answer to which is:

  Matthew 6:24
 24 No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and
 love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye
 cannot serve God and mammon.
 (KJV)

 Luke 11:17
 17 But he, knowing their thoughts, said unto them, Every kingdom
 divided against itself is brought to desolation; and a house divided against
 a house falleth.
 (KJV)








  John Lofton, Editor, TheAmericanView.com
 Recovering Republican

 Accursed is that peace of which revolt from God is the bond, and blessed
 are those contentions by which it is necessary to maintain the kingdom of
 Christ. -- John Calvin.


 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Wed, 19 Nov 2008 8:54 am
 Subject: Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

  An interesting piece in today's *NY Times*.

 http://www.nytimes.com/2008/11/19/world/europe/19shariah.html?

 Bobby

 Robert Justin Lipkin
 Distinguished Professor of Law
 Widener University School of Law
 Delaware
 *
 *Ratio Juris, Contributor:  http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/*
 Essentially Contested America, Editor-In-Chief
 http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/*



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Re: Suing God

2008-10-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
As an old Equity draftsman (or draughtsman) myself I appreciate the GS
reference.

For any in the Boston area, the Harvard Gilbert  Sullivan Players are
performing Iolanthe (whence comes Will's quote (and mine too) this December.

Vance

On Fri, Oct 24, 2008 at 9:36 AM, Will Linden [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

I read that the Nebraska lawsuit against God was dismissed. Does anyone
 have the details? News stories say the ground was lack of evidence of
 service. This issue was raised in Mayo vs Satan and his Staff... but I
 think it would not be a problem when the respondent is omnipresent, and not
 just highly maneuverable. (Obligatory popular culture reference.) Perhaps
 An affidavit from a thunderstorm, or a few words on oath from a heavy
 shower, would be treated with the seriousness they deserve.

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Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-18 Thread Vance R. Koven
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Re: msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Vance R. Koven
What interests me in the story is the statement--about which nobody seems to
have commented--that the woman professed no knowledge of the personal
freedoms French law grants to women and all individuals. Having no knowledge
of French immigration law, and precious little of US immigration law, I
would have expected this to be the handle for denying citizenship, namely
that she had not sufficiently familiarized herself with the fundamental laws
of the country. Whether or not she chooses to avail herself of these
liberties is a different matter; but one should know what the options are.

Vance

On Thu, Jul 17, 2008 at 5:20 AM, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Case of fully veiled woman roils France
 Dissenting voices are wondering whether France went too far in denying
 citizenship to a  Muslim woman who sheaths herself in a head-to-toe veil,
 saying she had not assimilated into society.

 http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/25707374/from/ET/





 Joel L. Sogol

 Attorney at Law

 811 21st Avenue

 Tuscaloosa, Alabama  35401

 ph (205) 345-0966

 fx  (205) 345-0967

 [EMAIL PROTECTED]



 Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight -- which is why we have
 evidence rules in U.S. courts.



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Re: Question about English law on religion and marriages

2008-04-18 Thread Vance R. Koven
Here's an excerpt from the Civil Partnership Act 2004, Ch. 33 §6 (I claim
fair use for this short excerpt under governing US law--Eugene can defend
me):

* 2004 CHAPTER 33 *

Butterworths UK Statutes
Copyright 2008, Butterworths Tolley UK
a division of Reed Elsevier, Inc.
All rights reserved.
*** THIS DOCUMENT IS CURRENT THROUGH 22 FEBRUARY, 2008 ***
*CIVIL **PARTNERSHIP** ACT 2004*
*2004 CHAPTER 33*
*PART 2 **CIVIL** PARTNERSHIP:** ENGLAND AND WALES*
*Registration procedure: general*
Royal Assent [18 November 2004]
Civil Partnership Act 2004, Ch. 33, s. 6 (Eng.)
*6 Place of registration*

(1) The place at which two people may register as civil partners of each
other--

(a) must be in England or Wales,

(b) must not be in religious premises, and

(c) must be specified in the notices, or notice, of proposed civil
partnership required by this Chapter.

(2) Religious premises means premises which--

(a) are used solely or mainly for religious purposes, or

(b) have been so used and have not subsequently been used solely or mainly
for other purposes.

[(3) Subsections (3A) and (3B) apply in the case of registration under the
standard procedure (including that procedure modified as mentioned in
section 5).

(3A) The place must be--

(a) on approved premises, or

(b) in a register office.

(3B) If it is in a register office, the place must be open to any person
wishing to attend the registration.

(3C) In this Chapter register office means a register office provided
under section 10 of the Registration Service Act 1953.]


On Fri, Apr 18, 2008 at 12:44 PM, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:

An English newspaper site reports:

 http://www.islingtongazette.co.uk/content/islington/gazette/news/story.a
 spx?brand=ISLGOnlinecategory=newstBrand=northlondon24tCategory=newsis
 lgitemid=WeED16%20Apr%202008%2013%3A51%3A32%3A940http://www.islingtongazette.co.uk/content/islington/gazette/news/story.aspx?brand=ISLGOnlinecategory=newstBrand=northlondon24tCategory=newsislgitemid=WeED16%20Apr%202008%2013%3A51%3A32%3A940

 Newington Green Unitarian Church, which the 18th century feminist Mary
 Wollstonecraft once attended, has announced it will not hold marriages
 until it is able to conduct civil partnerships for gay couples

 At the moment, the law bans any religious service from taking place
 during a gay civil partnership

Is that really the law in England?  Many thanks,

Eugene
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Re: Yoder and homeschooling rights

2008-03-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
To the extent the court relies on the cultural extinction factor as
distinguishing Yoder, doesn't that undercut the argument that parents cannot
decide to home school for secular reasons? Or at the very least, doesn't it
undercut the contention that there is a strong distinction between
religious, philosophical and cultural motivations?

Vance

On Wed, Mar 5, 2008 at 4:22 PM, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

That is precisely what the parents in this case were arguing.

  -Original Message-
  From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Judith Baer
  Sent: Wednesday, March 05, 2008 1:09 PM
  To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
  Subject: RE: Yoder and homeschooling rights
 
 
  Yoder involved children whose parents' religion (Amish)
  accepted education given outside of the home for grades one
  through eight but mandated that children not continue their
  education in a public or private school past the eighth
  grade.  The Yoder court rejected the notion that parents have
  a universal right to refuse to obey a state's compulsory
  education law.
 
  What if you're homeschooling for religious reasons? Here in
  Texas, a lot of parents do.
 
  Judy Baer
  Texas AM
 
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Re: Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts

2008-02-08 Thread Vance R. Koven
Not being a family law expert, I can't make any definitive comment, and
possibly not even a coherent one, but my recollection is that courts will
look more closely at prenups where there is an indication, not just of
change of mind, but change of position--for example, religious conversion,
spousal bankruptcy--that would have affected a party's consent ab initio.
Plus there are those minimum standards you're referring to: if the whole
body of EU human rights law (as on the books, not, as we have seen, as they
are (un)enforced) is incorporated into this consideration, doesn't the
exception swallow the rule? Should a court recognize a divorce, for example,
obtained by the husband's unilateral threefold recitation I divorce you
without looking into the substantive protections offered to the wife and how
custody of children and visiting rights are administered? And if it will
only enforce the divorce if these secular standards are met, what's the
point of deferring to the religious law?

I'm more comfortable talking about choice of law and arbitration analogies,
but even there you have public policy exceptions to enforcement. In the US
states are constrained in applying public policy exceptions by the Full
Faith and Credit clause, against other states' rules, and by the Supremacy
Clause in the case of the Federal Arbitration Act (which however allows a
court to decline to enforce an arbitration clause on grounds applicable to
enforcement of contracts generally, so for example a showing of duress will
defeat the arbitration clause).

Vance

On Feb 7, 2008 11:05 PM, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

Wouldn't the current treatment of prenuptial agreements offer a
 useful analogy?  (I've heard that English courts generally haven't
 recognized them, and that would be an analogy, too, but let's assume
 that they are recognized.)  Such agreements, as I understand it, are
 generally enforceable, even against a spouse who changes his or her
 minds, and notwithstanding the possible unfairness to either party.  On
 the other hand, as I understand it there are some substantive minimums
 below which the prenuptial agreement's provisions can't go, and there
 are procedural rules, too.  If such secular agreements are allowed, it
 seems to me religious ones should be as well, and on much the same
 terms.

Eugene

  -Original Message-
  From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
  Sent: Thursday, February 07, 2008 7:23 PM
  To: Volokh, Eugene; religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
  Subject: RE: Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts
 
  the latter might make some sense, but might also leave some
  people -- women especially -- deprived of civil rights;
  furthermore, what happens to someone who leaves the faith?
 
  Paul Finkelman
  President William McKinley Distinguished Professor of Law
   and Public Policy
  Albany Law School
  80 New Scotland Avenue
  Albany, New York   12208-3494
 
  518-445-3386
  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
   [EMAIL PROTECTED] 02/07/08 8:04 PM 
  Is the Archbishop talking about different legal rules for
  different communities selected by government decision, or
  just about binding arbitration (in whatever system, religious
  or otherwise, of their
  choice) for those parties who so agree by contract?  I had
  assumed it was the latter, but maybe I'm mistaken.
 
  Eugene
 
 
  
 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Steven Jamar
Sent: Thursday, February 07, 2008 4:58 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts
 
 
This is an interesting issue that I am currently
  studying on a comparative basis -- particularly in parts of
  Africa where you can have all sorts of personal law (family
  and inheritance mostly) determined by different systems.  In
  Mauritania you can have the general civil law, Islamic law,
  pastoral customary law, or nomadic customary law control.
 
South Africa is struggling with this now as well with
  its general civil law, a large population that is Muslim, and
  various indigenous practices.
 
I plan a trip to South Africa in 2010 to study this, in between
  world cup games . . .   :)
 
 
Steve
 
On Feb 7, 2008, at 12:55 PM, Vance R. Koven wrote:
 
 
I love pregnant controversies like this. The
  Archbishop of Canterbury has endorsed the idea of allowing,
  to some undefined extent, separate legal systems apply to
  different religious and cultural groups in Britain, notably
  Sharia law for Muslims.
 
News story here:
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/uk_news/7232661.stm
 
While the UK, like the US, supports parties'
  ability to stipulate that a particular dispute may be
  submitted to religious courts so long as they consent and
  there are no other social externalities, to what extent can a
  constitutionally

Re: Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts

2008-02-07 Thread Vance R. Koven
I hope you're not suggesting that Gordon Brown might be wondering out loud
who will rid him of this meddlesome priest?

On Feb 7, 2008 3:15 PM, Robert O brien [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Of course, in Britain the conflict regarding church law and government
 law goes back to the conflict regarding Becket Archbishop of Canterbury and
 Henry II regarding which  court will try two minor priests concerning
 charged with murder.  That led to a group of knights killing Becket in his
 cathedral.

 Robert O'Brien

 - Original Message -
 *From:* Vance R. Koven [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 *Sent:* Thursday, February 07, 2008 12:55 PM
 *Subject:* Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts

 I love pregnant controversies like this. The Archbishop of Canterbury has
 endorsed the idea of allowing, to some undefined extent, separate legal
 systems apply to different religious and cultural groups in Britain, notably
 Sharia law for Muslims.

 News story here:
 http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/uk_news/7232661.stm

 While the UK, like the US, supports parties' ability to stipulate that a
 particular dispute may be submitted to religious courts so long as they
 consent and there are no other social externalities, to what extent can a
 constitutionally bound polity permit such things if not all parties consent,
 or if a party withdraws consent? And to what extent should secular courts
 recognize the judgments of religious courts when the outcomes transgress
 certain public policies of the state? And to what extent should the parties'
 agreement to apply religious law govern an action in a secular court (and if
 it's like a choice-of-law clause in a contract, how is the applicable law
 proven)?

 One tends to think about the deference paid to commercial arbitration
 under the Federal Arbitration Act, but even there a court need not enforce
 an award that contravenes public policy, and there are some rather fine
 distinctions drawn about when a court will strike an arbitration clause. At
 the same time, courts have permitted arbitrators to hear and decide claims
 under regulatory statutes like the antitrust laws and the securities laws.

 Without a written constitution, it may be difficult to ascertain how far
 such deference (in the case of religious courts) could go in the UK. Are
 there limits in the US beyond the limits to which parties can make
 contracts?

 Vance

 --
 Vance R. Koven
 Boston, MA USA
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 --

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Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts

2008-02-07 Thread Vance R. Koven
I love pregnant controversies like this. The Archbishop of Canterbury has
endorsed the idea of allowing, to some undefined extent, separate legal
systems apply to different religious and cultural groups in Britain, notably
Sharia law for Muslims.

News story here:
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/uk_news/7232661.stm

While the UK, like the US, supports parties' ability to stipulate that a
particular dispute may be submitted to religious courts so long as they
consent and there are no other social externalities, to what extent can a
constitutionally bound polity permit such things if not all parties consent,
or if a party withdraws consent? And to what extent should secular courts
recognize the judgments of religious courts when the outcomes transgress
certain public policies of the state? And to what extent should the parties'
agreement to apply religious law govern an action in a secular court (and if
it's like a choice-of-law clause in a contract, how is the applicable law
proven)?

One tends to think about the deference paid to commercial arbitration under
the Federal Arbitration Act, but even there a court need not enforce an
award that contravenes public policy, and there are some rather fine
distinctions drawn about when a court will strike an arbitration clause. At
the same time, courts have permitted arbitrators to hear and decide claims
under regulatory statutes like the antitrust laws and the securities laws.

Without a written constitution, it may be difficult to ascertain how far
such deference (in the case of religious courts) could go in the UK. Are
there limits in the US beyond the limits to which parties can make
contracts?

Vance

-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Photographer's right to refuse to photograph a commitment ceremony?

2008-01-29 Thread Vance R. Koven
The New Mexico RFRA's substantive section says:

§ 28-22-3.  Religious freedom protected; exceptions

   A government agency shall not restrict a person's free exercise of
religion unless:

   A. the restriction is in the form of a rule of general applicability and
does not directly discriminate against religion or among religions; and

   B. the application of the restriction to the person is essential to
further a compelling governmental interest and is the least restrictive
means of furthering that compelling governmental interest.

where free exercise of religion is defined as an act or a refusal to act
that is substantially motivated by religious belief.

I take it that the photographer would not have difficulty meeting the
definition of free exercise; the issues then becomes whether the
anti-discrimination law is a rule of general applicability (surely it is)
that does not *directly* discriminate against or among religions, or whether
there is a compelling interest. I think at this point I have mastered the
obvious.

The statute was enacted in 2000, and so far there don't seem to have been
any cases under it, at least none that Lexis reveals. Based on my perhaps
somewhat cynical view that state courts will wherever possible want to
vindicate a state statute as opposed to an individual right, and will bend
heaven and earth to do so when the right is being asserted by someone not on
the official list of protected human subspecies, I will predict that if the
matter comes to trial and appeal, New Mexico courts would rule in favor of
the anti-discrimination law.

The way the act is drafted, I don't see what the second clause of A adds to
the first clause, since a law of general applicability, so far as I
understand the principle, cannot by its nature target religion or a specific
religion. The soft underbelly of the analysis thus remains the compelling
interest test, and there is no escaping the result-driven nature of that
test. If you focus on the remedial purpose of the anti-discrimination law,
and its clientèle, you conclude that there is a compelling interest. If you
focus on the remedial purpose of RFRA and *its* clientèle, then maybe not.
When you regard the proper sphere of RFRA as protecting the interests of
religious persons against direct state interference in their practice that
does not affect any side-group, then the religious person wins; when the
client base of RFRA seeks to advance an interest apparently against the
client base of anti-discrimination laws, the latter wins. This, as I said,
is not a *rule* of decision, but it seems to be a predictor of decision.

Vance

On Jan 29, 2008 1:26 PM, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

The ADF reports that the New Mexico Human Rights Bureau is
 holding a hearing on a complaint against a husband-and-wife photography
 business which who refused to photograph a same-sex commitment ceremony.
 http://www.alliancedefensefund.org/news/story.aspx?cid=4369

I take it that the complaint is brought under N.M. Stats. sec.
 28-1-7(F), which bars any person in any public accommodation [from
 making] a distinction, directly or indirectly, in offering or refusing
 to offer its services, facilities, accommodations or goods to any person
 because of race, religion, color, national origin, ancestry, sex, sexual
 orientation,   Sec. 28-1-2(H) defines public accommodation quite
 broadly, as any establishment that provides or offers its services,
 facilities, accommodations or goods to the public, but does not include
 a bona fide private club or other place or establishment that is by its
 nature and use distinctly private.

Say that the owners of Elane Photography -- specifically Elaine
 Huguenin herself, who seems to be the principal photographer
 (http://www.elanephotography.com/; warning: annoying soundtrack) -- have
 a sincere religious objection to participating in what they see as a
 sinful occasion.  May they claim an exemption under the New Mexico RFRA?

Eugene
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Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan lifestyle?

2008-01-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
Shouldn't the issue be framed as whether the judge is granting greater
solicitude to religious aspects of the child's upbringing than to
non-religious ones of comparable influence? If the father had suddenly
developed an extreme interest in, say, raucous rock concerts (weird people,
drums, dancing), contrary to the household ambiance when the parents were
married, would an order such as this seem so exceptional?

I think in a lot of these cases, where post-divorce one parent undergoes a
lifestyle transformation (in either direction--harking back to the original
case of the father who became ultra-Orthodox or the mother who recanted
orthodoxy), the court is saving the parent from him- or herself by limiting
the child's exposure while the child could develop a strong aversion to the
wayward parent. Older children, of course, are well-versed in rolling their
eyeballs at their parents' idiosyncrasies (though I wonder if that too is a
feint).

Vance

On Jan 23, 2008 7:14 PM, Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The more I dig into cases similar to this the more I think that judges
 should not be allowed to consider religion at all. It's just too ripe for
 abuse, too open for a judge to be prejudiced against one party to the case
 because of their religion or (more commonly) their lack of it. I am
 astonished at the fact that appeals courts have refused to overturn such
 rulings even when they've been outrageously wrong.

 Ed Brayton

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Wednesday, January 23, 2008 4:22 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan
 lifestyle?

A recent New York state appellate court decision upheld a father's
 petition for overnight visitation, but stressed that this was done only
 because the father and his fiancee agreed to refrain from exposing the
 child to any ceremony connected to their religious practices, and because
 the Family Court could mandate, in the visitation order, protections
 against her exposure to any aspect of the lifestyle of the father and his
 fiancée which could confuse the child's faith formation.

I tracked down the trial court decision, and it turns out the
 father's and his fiancée's lifestyle and religious practices were
 Wiccan.  The trial court concluded that the child (age 10 at the time of
 the
 appellate court's decision) is too young to understand that different
 lifestyles or religions are not necessarily worse than what she is
 accustomed to; they are merely different.  For her, at her age, different
 equates to frightening.  So when her father and her father's fiancé[e]
 take
 her to a bonfire to celebrate a Solstice, and she hears drums beating and
 observes people dancing, she becomes upset and scared.  There was no
 further discussion in the trial court order of any more serious harm to
 the
 child, though of course there's always the change that some evidence was
 introduced at trial but wasn't relied on in the order.

Given this, should it be permissible for a court to protect the
 child from becoming upset and scared by ordering that a parent not
 expos[e the child] to any aspect of [the parent's] lifestyle ... which
 could confuse the child's faith formation?

Eugene
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-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan lifestyle?

2008-01-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
I'm a bit confused by Prof. Conkle's last sentence. The judges have been
explicitly ruling based on the best interests standard, which is the only
one they are permitted to apply. The question is not whether religion should
be exempt from the standard, but whether religion should be a favored or
disfavored component of it. In the case Eugene brought up, it seems that the
judge was very explicitly evaluating the impact of the father's religious
conversion on the child's personality formation, which is quite appropriate.
That such evaluations can serve as a subterfuge for a judge's personal
predilections is certainly a danger that should be guarded against, but not
at the cost of removing religious factors entirely from the evaluation; they
should be part of the consideration, to the same extent as anything else
that might affect the welfare of the child.

On Jan 24, 2008 8:19 AM, Conkle, Daniel O. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Ordinarily, the government, including judges, properly has little or no
 say in parental decisionmaking, lifestyle choices, etc., even if those
 parental choices or activities might not (in the view of the government,
 including judges) be in the best interests of the child.  It seems to me
 that the difficulty in the particular context of custody and visitation is
 that the government, through judges, necessarily involves itself in these
 matters.  The question then is whether or to what extent the religious
 aspects or elements of particular parental choices or activities should
 render them immune from the best interest evaluation that otherwise would
 be applicable in this specific corner of the law.

 I think Carl Schneider has written helpfully on these questions.

 Dan Conkle
 ***
 Daniel O. Conkle
 Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
 Indiana University School of Law
 Bloomington, Indiana  47405
 (812) 855-4331
 fax (812) 855-0555
 e-mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 ***


  --
 *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Thursday, January 24, 2008 7:53 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's
 Wiccan lifestyle?

 Shouldn't the issue be framed as whether the judge is granting greater
 solicitude to religious aspects of the child's upbringing than to
 non-religious ones of comparable influence? If the father had suddenly
 developed an extreme interest in, say, raucous rock concerts (weird people,
 drums, dancing), contrary to the household ambiance when the parents were
 married, would an order such as this seem so exceptional?

 I think in a lot of these cases, where post-divorce one parent undergoes a
 lifestyle transformation (in either direction--harking back to the original
 case of the father who became ultra-Orthodox or the mother who recanted
 orthodoxy), the court is saving the parent from him- or herself by limiting
 the child's exposure while the child could develop a strong aversion to the
 wayward parent. Older children, of course, are well-versed in rolling their
 eyeballs at their parents' idiosyncrasies (though I wonder if that too is a
 feint).

 Vance

 On Jan 23, 2008 7:14 PM, Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  The more I dig into cases similar to this the more I think that judges
  should not be allowed to consider religion at all. It's just too ripe
  for
  abuse, too open for a judge to be prejudiced against one party to the
  case
  because of their religion or (more commonly) their lack of it. I am
  astonished at the fact that appeals courts have refused to overturn such
  rulings even when they've been outrageously wrong.
 
  Ed Brayton
 
  -Original Message-
  From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  [mailto: [EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
  Sent: Wednesday, January 23, 2008 4:22 PM
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
  Subject: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan
  lifestyle?
 
 A recent New York state appellate court decision upheld a
  father's
  petition for overnight visitation, but stressed that this was done only
  because the father and his fiancee agreed to refrain from exposing the
  child to any ceremony connected to their religious practices, and
  because
  the Family Court could mandate, in the visitation order, protections
  against her exposure to any aspect of the lifestyle of the father and
  his
  fiancée which could confuse the child's faith formation.
 
 I tracked down the trial court decision, and it turns out the
  father's and his fiancée's lifestyle and religious practices were
  Wiccan.  The trial court concluded that the child (age 10 at the time of
  the
  appellate court's decision) is too young to understand that different
  lifestyles or religions are not necessarily worse than what she is
  accustomed to; they are merely different

Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan lifestyle?

2008-01-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
I think Steve's message illustrates exactly the point. What's in the best
interests of *the* child is a matter to be decided with reference to the
particular child in question and to his/her family's unique circumstances.
It is not a matter for ideology.

If a child is raised in a household in which differences are extolled and
exhibited, then being exposed to them post-divorce doesn't in itself seem
likely to harm the child. But where a family has adhered to a particular
framework, and that framework is suddenly jolted, not only by the divorce
but by radical changes in what had been viewed as a fundamental aspect of
child-rearing, then it seems perfectly consistent with the legal standard,
psychology and the still largely accepted role of the family, for a judge to
ascertain whether harm is likely to occur, and take reasonable actions to
prevent harm.

Imposing a Unitarian world view on, say, a Pentecostal child who had
consistently been reared that way, while it may seem to Steve like a good
thing, would be the worst kind of judicial bullying, as would an order for
a child raised in a Unitarian household to be sent off to Catholic school,
where in each case the judge reasonably concluded that this would create a
cognitive dissonance that could adversely affect the child's emotional
stability.

Vance

On Jan 24, 2008 9:32 AM, Steven Jamar [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 I'm quite troubled by the idea that children are developmentally harmed by
 exposure to more than one idea, religious or otherwise.  And that a judge
 can decide that only one religion is not harmful, and decide which one.

 How about -- step parents -- that is confusing.  Or remaining single. That
 is confusing.  Or sexual orientation.  Or one is an environmentalist
 minimalist and the other a hummer -level  consumerist.

 Would it be the same if one was a catholic and the other episcopalian? or
 two sects of judaism?  or two brands of evangelical christian? or mormon and
 7th day adventist?

 Barring a child from knowing a parent strikes me as not in the best
 interest of the child.

 As with anything else, there are, of course, limits -- but merely
 practicing a garden-variety of paganism or wiccan hardly seems dangerous to
 the mental health of anyone.

 In our Unitarian Universalist congregation we explicitly teach the kids
 about alternative views and beliefs and emphasize the individual and
 collective search.  I guess we are harming all of our kids and they should
 be taken away from us by child protective services!

 No.  This one goes too far.

 Steve


 On Jan 24, 2008 7:18 AM, Conkle, Daniel O. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

   Maybe I wasn't clear.  I wasn't suggesting how these cases should be
  decided, but only attempting to highlight what I think to be the underlying
  issue or problem.  (Maybe my point was so obvious that it could have gone
  without saying.)
 
  I haven't studied this particular area with care, but I'm inclined to
  agree with what Vance writes in most recent posting.
 
  Dan Conkle
 
   --
  *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
  *Sent:* Thursday, January 24, 2008 8:44 AM
 
  *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
  *Subject:* Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's
  Wiccan lifestyle?
 
  I'm a bit confused by Prof. Conkle's last sentence. The judges have been
  explicitly ruling based on the best interests standard, which is the only
  one they are permitted to apply. The question is not whether religion should
  be exempt from the standard, but whether religion should be a favored or
  disfavored component of it. In the case Eugene brought up, it seems that the
  judge was very explicitly evaluating the impact of the father's religious
  conversion on the child's personality formation, which is quite appropriate.
  That such evaluations can serve as a subterfuge for a judge's personal
  predilections is certainly a danger that should be guarded against, but not
  at the cost of removing religious factors entirely from the evaluation; they
  should be part of the consideration, to the same extent as anything else
  that might affect the welfare of the child.
 
  On Jan 24, 2008 8:19 AM, Conkle, Daniel O. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
Ordinarily, the government, including judges, properly has little or
   no say in parental decisionmaking, lifestyle choices, etc., even if those
   parental choices or activities might not (in the view of the government,
   including judges) be in the best interests of the child.  It seems to me
   that the difficulty in the particular context of custody and visitation is
   that the government, through judges, necessarily involves itself in these
   matters.  The question then is whether or to what extent the religious
   aspects or elements of particular parental choices or activities should
   render them immune from the best interest evaluation that otherwise 
   would

Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccanlifestyle?

2008-01-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
In a situation where the child has *already* been exposed to differences in
outlook between the two parents (as in Ed's personal example or in Alan's),
then it seems highly unlikely that anyone could show psychological injury by
the child's continuing to be so exposed following a divorce.

Nobody here seemed to take great exception to the New York case cited
earlier that required a lapsed mother to continue raising her child in
orthodox Judaism. She and her husband had agreed on this before the divorce,
and the evidence showed it was the child's strong preference. Suppose the
mother hadn't just lapsed, but had a Road to Damascus conversion and was
now an evangelical Christian. I don't think that would change the result in
the case. If the mother really wanted the child to attend Christian worship,
and the child balked or started wetting the bed or gave other evidence of
trauma, I doubt a court would--or should--have any hesitation in ordering
her not to do it.

In these cases, with such constraints in place, it becomes the constrained
parent's responsibility to maintain the kind of relationship with the child
that will not traumatize the child. Is there a Jewish or Christian or Wiccan
way to ride a Ferris wheel? This doesn't seem to be such a hard thing to
grasp, though I have no doubt such things are beyond the ken of many a
person.

On Jan 24, 2008 1:12 PM, Brownstein, Alan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  I have no clear answer to this problem – but I think part of what is
 troubling to me about the potential scope of these constraints on visitation
 orders is that they may make it difficult for the child to have any
 meaningful relationship with one parent. A devout individual may make his or
 her religious practices a regular part of life. Could the court prohibit one
 parent from saying a prayer before a meal if the child was present? If a
 Christian parent wants the child to be home on Sunday (to attend Church and
 to observe the Sabbath) and the other parent is an observant Jew so that if
 the child visited that parent on Saturday the child would necessarily be
 exposed to Jewish religious practices, how should a court resolve that
 tension. Would it be appropriate for the court to rule that only one parent
 could ever be with the child on weekends?



 Alan Brownstein



 *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven
 *Sent:* Thursday, January 24, 2008 8:52 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's
 Wiccanlifestyle?



 I think Steve's message illustrates exactly the point. What's in the best
 interests of *the* child is a matter to be decided with reference to the
 particular child in question and to his/her family's unique circumstances.
 It is not a matter for ideology.

 If a child is raised in a household in which differences are extolled and
 exhibited, then being exposed to them post-divorce doesn't in itself seem
 likely to harm the child. But where a family has adhered to a particular
 framework, and that framework is suddenly jolted, not only by the divorce
 but by radical changes in what had been viewed as a fundamental aspect of
 child-rearing, then it seems perfectly consistent with the legal standard,
 psychology and the still largely accepted role of the family, for a judge to
 ascertain whether harm is likely to occur, and take reasonable actions to
 prevent harm.

 Imposing a Unitarian world view on, say, a Pentecostal child who had
 consistently been reared that way, while it may seem to Steve like a good
 thing, would be the worst kind of judicial bullying, as would an order for
 a child raised in a Unitarian household to be sent off to Catholic school,
 where in each case the judge reasonably concluded that this would create a
 cognitive dissonance that could adversely affect the child's emotional
 stability.

 Vance

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Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's Wiccan lifestyle?

2008-01-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
With all respect, I think Ed is confusing two different issues. Of course, a
judge that awards custody or enters an order *because one parent's religion
is better than the other's* is not supportable, and may have
constitutional implications. But that's not what we're talking about. We're
talking about a considered judgment (presumably based on some psychological
evidence) that without such an order the child will suffer psychological
trauma. It's just not worth sacrificing the child to vindicate an
ideological predisposition.

On Jan 24, 2008 1:00 PM, Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  I could not agree more with Steve Jamar on this. The assumption that
 being exposed to different ideas is a bad thing is simply wrong. I know this
 from my own experience, having been raised by a Pentecostal and an atheist
 (who are still married after many decades). A judge making a custody
 decision might well have looked at that and awarded custody to my mother to
 avoid having me confused and that would have been  very bad thing indeed
 (there was no custody battle, we could live with whichever parent we chose
 and could change our mind at any time, and I chose to live with my father,
 who remarried to my Pentecostal stepmother). Not only was it not unhealthy
 to be raised in that allegedly confusing environment, I think it was a key
 to the development of traits I consider immensely valuable.



 And the real problem here, as always, is just how prone this kind of thing
 is to bias toward religion. Imagine a circumstance where a couple has raised
 a child without any religion or church attendance, but in the course of the
 divorce one of them has become a religious convert and wants to take their
 child to church with them. In case after case where the circumstances are
 the opposite, where the child has gone to church during the marriage but one
 parent is not religious and does not intend to take them to church, judges
 will consider this a strong point in favor of the religious parent getting
 custody on the grounds that it will continue his previous religious
 upbringing. But in this situation, where the previous upbringing was not
 religious, it is highly unlikely that a judge would consider this a point
 against the religious parent. Having now looked up an enormous number of
 these cases, it is obvious to me that the bias is nearly always in favor of
 religion and the pretenses on which that is based are applied in a highly
 selective manner to reach that outcome.



 Ed Brayton



 *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of *Steven Jamar
 *Sent:* Thursday, January 24, 2008 9:33 AM

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's
 Wiccan lifestyle?



 I'm quite troubled by the idea that children are developmentally harmed by
 exposure to more than one idea, religious or otherwise.  And that a judge
 can decide that only one religion is not harmful, and decide which one.

 How about -- step parents -- that is confusing.  Or remaining single. That
 is confusing.  Or sexual orientation.  Or one is an environmentalist
 minimalist and the other a hummer -level  consumerist.

 Would it be the same if one was a catholic and the other episcopalian? or
 two sects of judaism?  or two brands of evangelical christian? or mormon and
 7th day adventist?

 Barring a child from knowing a parent strikes me as not in the best
 interest of the child.

 As with anything else, there are, of course, limits -- but merely
 practicing a garden-variety of paganism or wiccan hardly seems dangerous to
 the mental health of anyone.

 In our Unitarian Universalist congregation we explicitly teach the kids
 about alternative views and beliefs and emphasize the individual and
 collective search.  I guess we are harming all of our kids and they should
 be taken away from us by child protective services!

 No.  This one goes too far.

 Steve

 On Jan 24, 2008 7:18 AM, Conkle, Daniel O. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Maybe I wasn't clear.  I wasn't suggesting how these cases should be
 decided, but only attempting to highlight what I think to be the underlying
 issue or problem.  (Maybe my point was so obvious that it could have gone
 without saying.)



 I haven't studied this particular area with care, but I'm inclined to
 agree with what Vance writes in most recent posting.



 Dan Conkle


  --

 *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of *Vance R. Koven

 *Sent:* Thursday, January 24, 2008 8:44 AM


 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: Shielding child whose mother is Catholic from father's
 Wiccan lifestyle?



 I'm a bit confused by Prof. Conkle's last sentence. The judges have been
 explicitly ruling based on the best interests standard, which is the only
 one they are permitted to apply. The question is not whether religion should
 be exempt from the standard

Re: RFRA bars drawing blood for DNA database

2007-12-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
I'm fascinated by the following statement in the court's opinion:

We have reservations as to whether his beliefs are
sincerely held, and the district court didn't make any findings
on this issue. The government argues that Zimmerman's
beliefs aren't sincere because of his previous drug use and tattoos,
but it is possible that his beliefs have changed over time.

Whatever might those tattoos have indicated?



On Dec 19, 2007 9:39 AM, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Here's a new twist on the subject:

 *Ninth Circuit reinstates federal criminal defendant's challenge under the
 Religious Freedom Restoration Act to having to provide a blood sample for
 the federal DNA database:* You can access today's per curiam decision of
 the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth 
 Circuithttp://www.ca9.uscourts.gov/at this
 linkhttp://www.ca9.uscourts.gov/ca9/newopinions.nsf/230D5EB769385190882573B4008102F2/$file/0650506.pdf?openelement.
 Unfortunately for the defendant, there are many ways to harvest his DNA, and
 it is unlikely that his religion proscribes them all.
 Posted at 01:11 PM http://howappealing.law.com/121807.html#030752by Howard
 Bashman [EMAIL PROTECTED]





 Joel L. Sogol

 811 21st Ave.

 Tuscaloosa, ALabama  35401

 ph (205) 345-0966

 fx (205) 345-0971

 email:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]



 Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight - which is why we have
 evidence rules in U.S. courts.





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Boston, MA USA
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Re: RFRA bars drawing blood for DNA database

2007-12-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
Quite so. Drawing blood wouldn't necessarily be strictly voluntary for that,
though.

I thought perhaps he'd tattooed the URL for the American Atheist Society or
suchlike. Or maybe a heart with Christopher Hitchens in it.


On Dec 19, 2007 2:04 PM, Steven Jamar [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 tats require needles sticking the skin and, I'm told, sometimes draw
 blood.

 On Dec 19, 2007, at 1:58 PM, Vance R. Koven wrote:

 I'm fascinated by the following statement in the court's opinion:

 We have reservations as to whether his beliefs are
 sincerely held, and the district court didn't make any findings
 on this issue. The government argues that Zimmerman's
 beliefs aren't sincere because of his previous drug use and tattoos,
 but it is possible that his beliefs have changed over time.

 Whatever might those tattoos have indicated?



 On Dec 19, 2007 9:39 AM, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

   Here's a new twist on the subject:
 
  *Ninth Circuit reinstates federal criminal defendant's challenge under
  the Religious Freedom Restoration Act to having to provide a blood sample
  for the federal DNA database:* You can access today's per curiam
  decision of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth 
  Circuithttp://www.ca9.uscourts.gov/at this
  linkhttp://www.ca9.uscourts.gov/ca9/newopinions.nsf/230D5EB769385190882573B4008102F2/$file/0650506.pdf?openelement.
  Unfortunately for the defendant, there are many ways to harvest his DNA, and
  it is unlikely that his religion proscribes them all.
  Posted at 01:11 PM http://howappealing.law.com/121807.html#030752by Howard
  Bashman [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 
 
 
  Joel L. Sogol
 
  811 21st Ave.
 
  Tuscaloosa, ALabama  35401
 
  ph (205) 345-0966
 
  fx (205) 345-0971
 
  email:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 
 
  Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight - which is why we
  have evidence rules in U.S. courts.
 
 
 
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 --
 Vance R. Koven
 Boston, MA USA
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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 Become the change you seek in the world.
 *-- Mahatma Gandhi.*

 Steven Jamar
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]




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Boston, MA USA
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Re: Meditation room in community college

2007-12-17 Thread Vance R. Koven
, the
 tract read in part. It should not be that you accept what entertains
 your desires and leave what opposes your desires; this is from the
 manners of the Jews.

 [T]he Jews and the Christians are described as the enemies of
 Allaah's religion. The document adds: Remember that you will never
 succeed while you follow these people.

 A poster on the room's door advertised a local lecture on marriage from
 an Islamic perspective, with useful tips for marital harmony from the
 Prophet's ... life. Other fliers invited students to join the
 Normandale Islamic Forum, or participate in Ramadan celebrations.

 One thing was missing from the meditation room: evidence of any faith
 but Islam. No Bible, no crucifix, no Torah

 Despite the room's Islamic atmosphere, [Dean of Student Affairs Ralph]
 Anderson says it is open to everyone. ...

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Boston, MA USA
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Re: Check out Biologist fired for beliefs, suit says - The Boston Globe

2007-12-07 Thread Vance R. Koven
Interesting set of facts and interesting procedural position.

I find it hard to imagine a situation other than an actual religious
organization where a person's religious belief system, without more, would
be a BFOQ, so I don't think Woods Hole is on very solid ground there. Nobody
seemed to think this person was doing a bad job until he mentioned his
religious views.

On the other hand, if he had requested reassignment as an accommodation to
his religious views, and he was not performing work unrelated to its mission
(IT, for example), I can understand, based on Woods Hole's main lines of
work, its claim that it would be an unreasonable burden.

The harassment claim, if he's only raising it now after losing at the
administrative level, might conceivably be barred, though I gladly defer to
those of you better versed in EEO law.

Vance

On Dec 7, 2007 12:40 PM, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Click here: Biologist fired for beliefs, suit says - The Boston 
 Globehttp://www.boston.com/news/local/articles/2007/12/07/biologist_fired_for_beliefs_suit_says/







 Joel L. Sogol

 811 21st Ave.

 Tuscaloosa, ALabama  35401

 ph (205) 345-0966

 fx (205) 345-0971

 email:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]



 Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight - which is why we have
 evidence rules in U.S. courts.



 ,_._,___

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Re: InnerChange Litigation

2007-12-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
There are several ways of looking at how PFM might or might not be liable
for money damages here. The first thing that leapt to mind was as an agent
for an undisclosed principal--since had it been known PFM was acting on
behalf of the state, which was under a prohibition, then its acts would be
immediately perceived as wrongful. However, the liability of an agent in
this case is, so far as I know, limited to those with whom it transacts
downstream.

A taxpayer suit might be analogous to a derivative action by shareholders,
in which the shareholders act in the name of the corporation to recover
damages caused by the wrongful acts of corporate fiduciaries and agents. As
others have pointed out, PFM, though, did not do anything inherently
wrongful, they were only wrongful because committed willy-nilly in the name
of the state; the inherently wrongful acts were committed by *other* state
agents who appointed PFM to undertake its activities in the prisons. It
would be highly salutary, though as far as I know it is unprecedented (other
than by specific statute), for state officials to be personally liable to
taxpayers for waste/misuse of state funds pursuing unlawful objectives; but
that's not PFM's problem. If you take the old hoary approach of tracing the
duties of the different parties, it seems as though the only party with any
duty to taxpayers/citizens is the state itself. The state officials owe
duties to the state to act within the scope of their engagement, and you can
say the same for PFM, but its scope is radically different from theirs, and
nobody has suggested (at least in this discussion) that PFM did not comply
with its (ultimately invalid) mandate.

Another route might be the doctrine of ultra vires, since plainly the state
had no authority to appoint PFM as its agent to do what the state could not
do directly. Modern corporate law has essentially eliminated actions on the
ultra vires theory, but if I remember correctly, contracts ultra vires are
void, not just voidable. On that theory PFM might have to give the money
back, but I confess this is just theory-spinning on my part without
examining any cases. It's been a *long* time since I needed to know this,
either for teaching or practicing!

Vance

On Dec 5, 2007 12:45 AM, Christopher Lund [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The points by Profesors Lupu, Green  Lederman make a lot of sense, and
 I'll check out Brentwood Academy, which sounds helpful.  Maybe it's just
 recoupment here that I have trouble understanding.  Recoupment seems to
 have little value here except as a way of punishing PFM.  Recoupment
 means that PFM now has to pay Iowa for the constitutional violation they
 committed together.  I don't think that makes much sense.  Maybe PFM is
 as culpable as Iowa -- but is there really an argument that PFM is more
 culpable, that the Establishment Clause applies more to PFM than it does
 to Iowa?  By virtue of the taxpayer theory, Iowa suddenly gets to flip
 sides in the litigation.  It doesn't have to pay the plaintiffs.  It
 instead gets to become the plaintiffs and take PFM's money back on their
 alleged behalf.

 Now I understand the theory -- that the injury was taxpayer dollars
 going to PFM, that the remedy, if there is to be one, means the money
 has to go back, and that Iowa this time could spend it on something
 constitutional.  But it seems like the remedy of recoupment means we've
 moved full circle from (1) Iowa being responsible, to (2) Iowa and PFM
 being jointly responsible, to (3) PFM being chiefly (or even solely)
 responsible.  Maybe I'm missing something, but I find this problematic.

 Best,
 Chris


 Christopher C. Lund
 Assistant Professor of Law
 Mississippi College School of Law
 151 E. Griffith St.
 Jackson, MS  39201
 (601) 925-7141 (office)
 (601) 925-7113 (fax)



-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Suing God (honest, it's a lawsuit that has really been filed)

2007-09-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
Considering that so many churches and similar institutions consider
themselves duly and uniquely appointed agents, it shouldn't really be too
hard.

In fact, this idea might catch on, and we might find the IRS claiming that
all those churches et al. are permanent establishments whose income,
though not taxable to them because *they* filed for exemptions, are
effectively connected with their principal's trade or business and taxable
directly to him/her/it.

On 9/19/07, James Manning [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 I just keep thinking that if this suit were to go through, what a long
 difficult day that is going to be on some process server.

 James Manning
 Murray State undergrad

 --
 Moody friends. Drama queens. Your life? Nope! - their life, your story.
 Play Sims Stories at Yahoo! Games.
 http://us.rd.yahoo.com/evt=48224/*http://sims.yahoo.com/


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Re: Joel wanted to show you an article

2007-09-10 Thread Vance R. Koven
The NYT version I got following Steve's link had the entire quote, so if it
was omitted from the Tuscaloosa paper it might have been an editing error.

Vance

On 9/10/07, Douglas Laycock [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 I am quoted deep in the story.  For what it's worth, the quote makes more
 sense if you know that I said They're picking out what is acceptable
 religious teaching for prisoners, -- not what is accessible religious
 teaching.  I don't blame the reporter.  It's probably not a good idea to
 talk to a reporter by cell phone, although this time I didn't have a choice.

 Quoting Steven Jamar [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

  here's the NYT version of the story
 
 
 http://www.nytimes.com/2007/09/10/us/10prison.html?ex=1190088000en=fae653b30e85639eei=5070emc=eta1http://horde/services/go.php?url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.nytimes.com%2F2007%2F09%2F10%2Fus%2F10prison.html%3Fex%3D1190088000%26en%3Dfae653b30e85639e%26ei%3D5070%26emc%3Deta1
 
  or
 
  http://tinyurl.com/38n8hjhttp://horde/services/go.php?url=http%3A%2F%2Ftinyurl.com%2F38n8hj
 
  On 9/10/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
 
  Just put Tuscaloosanews.com in front of the rest. Frances Paterson
 
  Frances Paterson, J.D., Ed.D.
  Professor
  Department of Curriculum, Leadership, and Technology
  College of Education
  Valdosta State University
  Valdosta, GA 31698-0090
 
 
  
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Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-09-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
While there is some persuasive force in this argument as a matter of first
analysis, I can see several objections. First, doesn't it conflict with the
law as it actually is? When there are secular exemptions, under the
Smith/Sherbert concatenation the denial of a religious exemption gets strict
scrutiny, which the secular exemptions effectively prevent it from passing.
Second, doesn't the argument prove too much, in the sense that the other
activities the state exempts from the continuous-student-status requirement
(military service and community service) are also voluntary? And third,
wouldn't it involve courts too deeply in matters theological to have to
determine whether a particular practice was compelled by the student's
religion or was only peripheral (which also raises the question of whether
free exercise is effectively only available for religious bodies whose
doctrines and requirements can be reduced to something like a legal code,
rather than to individuals who may interpret their religious ideas)?

-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

On 9/5/07, Paul Finkelman [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The choice issue, at least for me, is not about being a neo-atheist,
 since I am not one.  The issues here is seems is that the student does
 have choice to not do the mission.  As I understand it not all Mormons
 do; and no one has answered the question as to the timing of the
 mission. MUST he do it at a certain age.  If not, then there is a great
 deal of choice.  He can choose to go to college and then do the mission.
 He can choose to do the mission and then go to college.  I assume, for
 example, that Mormons attend West Point or the other service academies
 and that they do not leave school for a year to do a mission.

 Try this, suppose instead of being in regular university the student was
 at a service academy and therefore a member of the military -- which is
 a choice.  And then asks for a leave to go on a mission.   Suppose he is
 not a student but enlists at 17 or 18, serves until 19 and as he is
 about to be shipped to Iraq  says I need a leave for a year.  I don't
 think he gets it and I don't see how that would be a necessary
 accommodation of religious practice.

 I have never suggested people are irrational in their belief and I
 find David's suggestion that I have to be way over the top.

 Paul Finkelman
 President William McKinley Distinguished Professor of Law
  and Public Policy
 Albany Law School
 80 New Scotland Avenue
 Albany, New York   12208-3494

 518-445-3386
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] 09/05/07 9:41 AM 
 It does seem to me that one of the most compelling arguments in favor of
 religious freedom is the recognition that religious belief is not simply
 a matter of choice--like deciding whether or not to join a fraternity or
 sorority.  As Calvin and Paul suggested, it is a product of grace.  That
 does not mean that people of faith are irrational with respect to the
 theology that grows out of that belief, it does mean that faith touches
 something much deeper and more profound.

 That said, I think the evangelical fervor displayed by the neo-atheists
 (as E.J. Dionne so aptly labels them) demonstrates that this religious
 connection can attach to a materialist ideology as well as a
 transcendentalist one.  The mistake Harris and company make is in
 thinking that their choices are purely rational and that everyone should
 believe exactly as they do.  (Sounds like some religious fundamentalists
 to me.)

 In this sense, I think the issue does touch significantly on religion
 and law.

 David


 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]: Wed, 5 Sep 2007 08:58:10 -0400Subject: Re:
 Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join UpTo: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

 I'd welcome an on-list discussion of this matter, with Eugene's
 permission of course.Bobby  Robert Justin LipkinProfessor of
 LawWidener University School of LawDelawareRatio Juris, Contributor:
 http://ratiojuris.blogspot.com/Essentially Contested America,
 Editor-In-Chief http://www.essentiallycontestedamerica.org/


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Re: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up

2007-08-30 Thread Vance R. Koven
More to the point, I would think, is that neither military nor community
service is required, either (well, maybe community service when part of a
criminal sentence). Since there are clearly secular exemptions to the rule,
it can't be said to be a neutral rule of general application. Smith
therefore doesn't apply, and Sherbert does, right?

Vance

-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

On 8/30/07, Ed Darrell [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 No, the mission is not required, in the same sense that, if elected, a
 cardinal may turn down the papacy, or Mother Teresa can return from the dead
 and refuse canonization -- well, maybe not that serious.  Only someone who
 is not a member of the church and doesn't have to face years of questions in
 elders' quorums, queries from potential spouses' parents, and the general
 disapproval of everyone a person knows, would think it's a voluntary sort of
 thing that is optional, and no big deal.

 People are encouraged to breathe, but it's not required . . .

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas

 *Brad Pardee [EMAIL PROTECTED]* wrote:

 I found this line particularly interesting:

 The state's request to dismiss Haws' lawsuit notes that Mormon missions
 are
 encouraged, not required. Haws was 'under no compulsion to choose between
 the tenets of his religion and continued receipt of the PROMISE
 scholarship,' the motion reads.

 As I've read the posts here over time, it has seemed like the question is
 often finding the balance between the free exercise clause and the
 establishment clause. To my layman's eye, though, it would seem, though,
 that in this case, the state is potentially managing to run afoul of both
 clauses. It sounds like the student is making a free exercise claim when
 he
 talks about being forced to choose between his religion and his
 scholarship.
 However, if the state is making pronouncements that distinguish between
 what
 a religion encourages and what a religion requires, could a case be made
 that this qualifies as excessive entanglement?

 Brad Pardee

 - Original Message -
 From: Volokh, Eugene
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Sent: Thursday, August 30, 2007 1:28 AM
 Subject: Mormon Student, Justice, ACLU Join Up


  Any thoughts on this?
 
 
 
 http://www.foxnews.com/wires/2007Aug25/0,4670,ReligionLawsuitScholarship,00.html
 
  The Justice Department is joining the American Civil Liberties Union in
  backing a student who lost his state-funded merit-based scholarship
  because he left college to serve a two-year church mission.
 
  The department's Civil Rights Division filed a friend-of-the-court brief
  Friday in U.S. District Court in Charleston on behalf of David Haws, a
  student at West Virginia University.
 
  Haws, a Mormon, is suing a state scholarship board, alleging it violated
  his First Amendment right to freely exercise his religion. His attorney
  argues that by denying Haws' request for a leave of absence, the board
  forced him to choose between his religion and his scholarship through a
  state program, known as PROMISE.
 
  The Justice Department noted that the PROMISE Board grants deferments
  for military and community service, and that by denying a deferral for
  religious purposes, the board was placing a lower value on religious
  deferments
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Re: Free speech, teaching of jihad, parental rights, and children's best interests

2007-02-08 Thread Vance R. Koven

I have to take issue with one statement in your op-ed, Eugene: you say,
...children are immature and less able to resist their parents' ideological
excesses. You're probably not far enough along in your parenting, but trust
me, children have remarkable defenses (and offenses) of their own.

More seriously, I'm troubled also by the lack of constitutional restraint
exercised by family law judges in these cases. Best interests of the child
as a legal standard probably would, on close analysis, fail all the
vagueness tests. Where exposure to unconventional views are not producing
*observable* psychological damage to the children, the state shouldn't
bother --or be allowed--to impose a more conventional lifestyle on divorced
families than it does (which is to say, barely at all) on intact ones. In
fact, the existence of a disagreement between the parents on philosophical,
religious and similar value points (what about political affiliation?)
should do more to insulate children from undue influence than in, say,
two-jihadist households.

Vance

On 2/7/07, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


I ran across a fascinating -- and unpublished and
computer-inaccessible -- new parent-child speech decision; I've posted
the text at
http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_02_04-2007_02_10.shtml#117074166
6, and written it up in an L.A. Times op-ed available at
http://www.latimes.com/news/opinion/la-oe-volokh6feb06,0,7797695.story?c
oll=la-opinion-rightrail, but here are some excerpts from the trial
court decision (which was generally upheld on appeal, except that the
visitation was changed to supervised visitation, starting after the
father finishes his federal probation):

The history of the relationship between the petitioner and
respondent, and their conduct and beliefs, prior to their ultimate
separation and divorce, may be considered extreme or non-conventional,
especially in today's, post 9-11 world. The petitioner has not seen
his children since 1997, although he has maintained consistent contact
with the children, through cards and letters and speaks with them
regularly by telephone.

It is uncontroverted that the petitioner is a repeat felony
offender, having been convicted of, among other things, making terrorist
threats and weapons possession. In fact, both the petitioner and
respondent testified that they amassed a large quantity of weapons
during their marriage, which in turn, resulted in the petitioner's most
recent felony conviction for weapons possession. The petitioner was
incarcerated at the time of the parties' divorce and it is
uncontroverted that his incarceration and current alleged inability to
travel, is the direct result of his criminal conduct.

During their marriage, both parties followed a quasi Muslim
philosophy, including the naming of the two children born during their
marriage, Mujahid Daniel and Mujahid David[.] ...

The respondent contends that due to the petitioner's violent
felony conviction record, the domestic violence exhibited during the
course of their marriage, his extremist views regarding religion,
including his belief regarding Jihad; and the letters written to the
children while he was incarcerated, lecturing about religion and
reminding the children that their names are MUJAHID, that visitation
should be denied

[T]he issue before the Court is what visitation would be in the
children's best interest   [T]he children shall have visitation with
their father  The petitioner/father shall not discuss any issues
pertaining to his religion or philosophy with respect to same, during
any unsupervised visitation time with the children.

Any thoughts on this?

Eugene
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Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Free speech, teaching of jihad, parental rights, and children's best interests

2007-02-08 Thread Vance R. Koven

I agree that the legal scope of parental authority is far greater than its
practical scope (rather like the obligations of contract). Your original
point, I take it, was that judicial usurpation of that authority under color
of a divorce decree should for those very reasons be subject to greater
scrutiny and a more bounded standard than best interests of the child has
so far been held to be. I agree with that as well, in principle.

Since divorce decrees are generally reviewed on appeal based only on an
abuse of discretion (somebody more familiar with family law correct me if
I'm wrong), how does the Constitution intrude itself into the exercise of a
court's discretion? Due process in these situations presumably would only
require satisfying a rational basis test (unlike the cases you cite
involving racial matters). It would take a very bold appellate court (give
Massachusetts a try) to rule that imposing a bygone generation's view of
domestic tranquility was not rationally related to the best interests of the
child, as opposed to being the *better* view. I even suspect that a state
with a RFRA would allow best interest of the child determinations to trump
a parent's religious freedom claims (I seem to recall that some already have
done).

Bottom line: if you want to raise a jihadist, be very nice to your spouse.

Vance

On 2/8/07, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


I tried to note this in my NYU L. Rev. article, in fact with a
quote (taken somewhat out of context) from Edmund Burke:

Of course, we shouldn't overstate the practical scope of
parental power, especially over older children.  'Despotism itself is
obliged to truck and huckster.  The Sultan gets such obedience as he
can.'   But this legally enforced parental power does exist.  It makes
the parent-child relationship different from the relationship that
speakers usually have with listeners.  And it makes legal intervention
to prevent speech that harms the listeners more appealing.




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Vance R. Koven
Sent: Thursday, February 08, 2007 4:27 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Free speech, teaching of jihad, parental rights,and
children's best interests


I have to take issue with one statement in your op-ed, Eugene:
you say, ...children are immature and less able to resist their
parents' ideological excesses. You're probably not far enough along in
your parenting, but trust me, children have remarkable defenses (and
offenses) of their own.

More seriously, I'm troubled also by the lack of constitutional
restraint exercised by family law judges in these cases. Best interests
of the child as a legal standard probably would, on close analysis,
fail all the vagueness tests. Where exposure to unconventional views are
not producing *observable* psychological damage to the children, the
state shouldn't bother --or be allowed--to impose a more conventional
lifestyle on divorced families than it does (which is to say, barely at
all) on intact ones. In fact, the existence of a disagreement between
the parents on philosophical, religious and similar value points (what
about political affiliation?) should do more to insulate children from
undue influence than in, say,  two-jihadist households.

Vance


On 2/7/07, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

I ran across a fascinating -- and unpublished
and
computer-inaccessible -- new parent-child speech
decision; I've posted
the text at

http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_02_04-2007_02_10.shtml#117074166
6, and written it up in an L.A. Times op-ed available at

http://www.latimes.com/news/opinion/la-oe-volokh6feb06,0,7797695.story?c
oll=la-opinion-rightrail, but here are some excerpts
from the trial
court decision (which was generally upheld on appeal,
except that the
visitation was changed to supervised visitation,
starting after the
father finishes his federal probation):

The history of the relationship between the
petitioner and
respondent, and their conduct and beliefs, prior to
their ultimate
separation and divorce, may be considered extreme or
non-conventional,
especially in today's, post 9-11 world. The petitioner
has not seen
his children since 1997, although he has maintained
consistent contact
with the children, through cards and letters and speaks
with them
regularly by telephone.

It is uncontroverted that the petitioner is a
repeat felony
offender, having been convicted of, among other things,
making terrorist
threats and weapons possession. In fact, both the
petitioner

Re: RLUIPA and light pollution?

2006-12-11 Thread Vance R. Koven

I would suppose that preventing a service-affecting impediment to the Mt.
Palomar observatory could qualify as a compelling interest, as relocating an
astronomical observatory is hardly a trivial matter.

I also assume it matters whether the light-pollution ordinance qualify as a
land-use restriction for purposes of applying RLUIPA, no? As a
pollution-control regulation it might, although it affects the use of land,
not fall within RULIPA's ambit.

This thread puts me in mind of a recent to-do in Boston over a homeowner's
Christmas lighting display, which is so extensive that it has driven his
neighbors bats (and he's had it up since October). I've driven by the site,
and it is formidable indeed--it's like the floodlights at Fenway Park. I
don't know whether Boston has a light-pollution regulation (surely Boston
regulates everything), but could a non-church landowner claim the benefit of
RLUIPA were the city, or his neighbors, to try, shall we say, to douse his
lights?

On 12/11/06, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I sympathize with light pollution ordinances, and I'm not sure that
they impose a substantial burden here.  But if there's a *compelling*
government interest in preventing light pollution, then we really are in
strict in theory, feeble in fact territory.

 --
 *From:* [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:
[EMAIL PROTECTED] *On Behalf Of [EMAIL PROTECTED]
*Sent:* Monday, December 11, 2006 8:42 AM
*To:* religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
*Subject:* Re: RLUIPA and light pollution?

 RLUIPA is not blanket protection from the operation of the law.  I would
think that the federal laws at issue here would satisfy strict scrutiny.  I
also have some questions regarding whether the intensity of the light bulb
can be argued as a substantial burden on religious exercise.  RLUIPA
defines religious exercise to include any potential belief, not just central
beliefs, but the light intensity argument seems to me to be a very tough one
for the religious entities to win.  Moreover, where is the burden on
reducing the wattage?  RLUIPA is unlikely to assist the religious entity
here.

Marci

Marci A. Hamilton
Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
Yeshiva University


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Sun, 10 Dec 2006 12:34 AM
Subject: RLUIPA and light pollution?

Here's an interesting situation I'd like to get some opinions about.


http://www.thedesertsun.com/apps/pbcs.dll/article?AID=/20061209/NEWS01/612090325


A church in Palm Desert, CA, has a giant lit cross that apparently
violates the local light pollution ordinances (it's about 6 times brighter
than the zoning laws allow). According to Phil Plait (
http://www.badastronomy.com/bablog/2006/12/09/science-versus-religion/),
an astronomer, it's causing problems for the Mt. Palomar space telescope,
and apparently Federal law requires that all such lights within 45 miles of
the observatory be shut off at night. A law professor from USC says that the
RLUIPA prevents any enforcement of those statutes, but that strikes me as
unlikely. Any thoughts?

Ed Brayton
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--
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: RE: RLUIPA and light pollution?

2006-12-11 Thread Vance R. Koven

The last paragraph of Steve's post touches on the second point I raised in
my original one, which is that a light pollution ordinance isn't a land use
restriction within the meaning of RLUIPA. One could violate a light
pollution rule as plausibly with your automobile headlights as with a fixed
lighting display. By the same token, although pollution control laws
certainly do affect how people use land, and are thus literally land use
regulations, the history of RLUIPA suggests strongly to me that that's not
what Congress had in mind, unless Congress assumed that pollution control
was always going to be a compelling interest that trumped a
religiously-motivated polluter.

I'm also not sure that the Boston homeowner whose Christmas display angers
his neighbors would concede, as did the litigants in Osborn v. Power did,
that his religion didn't compel him to put up such a display (and centrality
isn't, is it, necessary to prevail in a RLUIPA case).

For information, the link I got to the story is here:
http://www.boston.com/news/local/massachusetts/articles/2006/11/20/hey_whats_the_bright_idea/

Since it's several weeks old, it might not work.


On 12/11/06, Steven Jamar [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


Eugene,

You just are not thinking with sufficient circularity. :)

There is no substantial burden because it is merely a time place and
manner restriction.

A time place and manner restriction is not  by its terms a
substantical burden.

I mean this only partly in jest.  Just as we have the secondary
effects doctrine in free speech/pornography zoning cases, so we have
would find RLUIPA does not reach all conduct that it could be
interpreted to reach.

The language could be construed Eugene's way, and then we play games
about what is or is not a substantial burden.  And I submit that
deciding that issue will bring into play all sorts of concerns and
weighing and so on that will result in allowing states to regulate
light pollution.

All that said, I don't think there is a substantial burden here.

I think that mere neighbor annoyance is not a compelling state
interest -- I agree with that.  But at some point the mere annoyance
can become too intrusive and even a common law nuisance the abatement
of which would be adequately compelling.

Also, if we look at the aims of the law, the context in which it was
passed, and the variety of limitations built around it, then I come to
the conclusion that this is not the sort of activity it was meant to
reach.  I would conclude that it is intended to reach things that are
more in the nature of prohibitions than mere limitations.

Steve



--
Prof. Steven Jamar
Howard University School of Law
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[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Illinois Appellate Court holds that the state RFRA doesn't apply to judicial decisions, Marsaw v. Richards, 2006 WL 2715266 (Sept. 22)

2006-09-27 Thread Vance R. Koven

The court's discussion of this subject was quite cursory and
unsatisfactory. Basically, it said, of the argument that a court
decision is itself government action,  it's never been raised before,
so we won't consider it. It's not exactly an ancient statute, so
courts should be prepared to deal with cases of first impression.

In the context of this being the case's third visit to the Appellate
Court, one might understand a lack of patience, but the court's
analysis was deeply flawed. Even if a court decision, by itself,
isn't government action within the meaning of RFRA (and I don't
concede that point), why shouldn't the claim be read as one under the
Illinois nonprofit corporation law, which the moving party was asking
not be construed or enforced in a way that would impinge on religious
exercise?

On 9/27/06, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

Illinois Appellate Court holds that the state RFRA doesn't apply
to judicial decisions, Marsaw v. Richards, 2006 WL 2715266 (Sept. 22).

Eugene
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Re: How one school district found religion

2006-05-24 Thread Vance R. Koven
A very interesting article that raises (one might say begs) the question of the extent to which it is constitutionally permissible for the state to encourage adherents of intolerant religions to be tolerant. The last paragraph of the article summarizes the school system's position nicely:
Limiting deeply held beliefs to the private sphere breeds suspicion and
tension. True religious liberty prevails not only when people feel
comfortable expressing their beliefs, but also when they learn to
discuss religious differences with civility and respect.Some on this list might complain that the whole concept of encouraging cross-religious dialogue under state sponsorship smacks of imperial Protestant theology. To the extent the exercise is about more than etiquette there might be something to this, though it might not be a persuasive objection. What should an adherent of Wahabism think about such a program, if the adherent buys into the theology represented in the school textbooks quoted here the other day?
There certainly is an important state interest in promoting personal security. Is adopting a platform of enforced religious tolerance the least restrictive means of achieving that objective? From the article, it seems clear that participants in the program grew to see the similarities between religious belief systems. What if this outlook results in higher levels of intermarriage between religious adherents (prohibited in some religions) and a consequent decrease in adherents of some religions or a decrease in religious institutional participation?
Bottom line, can the state adopt a policy that religious adherents have to get with the program of religious liberty, or are we now required on the one hand to literalize the First Amendment to prevent the adoption of any policy on the interaction between belief and action in secular society (to the extent anyone acknowledges the existence of such a thing), or on the other to deconstruct the First Amendment as an obsolete imposition of one religious point of view? Or are we allowed, with or without acknowledging that the First Amendment reflects a religious viewpoint, to say that its benefits for the continuity of the polity outweigh any burden placed on intolerant religionists?
VanceOn 5/23/06, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:















http://news.yahoo.com/s/usatoday/20060522/cm_usatoday/howoneschooldistrictfoundreligion








 
  
  Americans have
  never been in greater need of understanding religious differences and
  cultivating respect for religious freedom. The events of 9/11 transformed America's relationship with Muslims at home and abroad, a surge in immigration from Asia and Africa has increased the nation's religious diversity, and cultural conflicts between
  secularists and religious conservatives occur like clockwork. 
  
 






So you might think the last thing
school districts would want is to bring religion into the classroom. Better to
play it safe, and avoid lawsuits and angry parents by limiting any mention of
faith to the private sphere. But school officials in Modesto, in Northern California, decided not to play it safe. In 2000, the religiously diverse
community took a risk and, in an almost unheard-of undertaking for a public
school district, offered a required course on world religions and religious
liberty for ninth-graders. 





Joel L. Sogol

Attorney at Law

811 21st Avenue

Tuscaloosa, Alabama 35401

ph: (205) 345-0966

fx: (205) 345-0971

email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]






Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight -- which
is why we have evidence rules in U.S. courts.









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-- Vance R. KovenBoston, MA USA[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Missouri declares Christianity its official religion.

2006-03-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
Don't know about Dallas, but they certainly do in Boston, especially
around the time of the gay pride parade.

Vance

On 3/4/06, Ed Darrell [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Alas, lack of understanding won't increase if such changes occur.  Would it
 not be better to achieve a workable level of understanding rather than
 vitiate the laws that protect the freedoms we have?

 Is there no one who will step up to the podium and tell what the rights
 really are?

 And, by the way -- do you know of any city that has put up a gay pride
 banner?  How many times has this happened?

 Ed Darrell
 Dallas


 Rick Duncan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I read the text of the Mo resolution, and what I read there between the
 lines is not so much the desire to make Christianity the national religion,
 but rather frustration caused by judicial decisions that appear to have
 cleansed religion ! from the public culture.

 For people who are not as sophisticated as constitutional law scholars, it
 is difficult to understand why a city can put up gay pride banners in public
 parks but not nativity scenes. Why public schools can celebrate Earth Day,
 but not Christmas.

 Why Christian Charley has no Free Ex right merely to opt out of evolution in
 the curriculum, but Secular Sammy has a right--not only to opt out for
 himself--but to stop his willing classmates from even hearing about
 challenges to evolution such as ID.

 Interestingly, the frustration may be about to end. With recent changes on
 the Court (and! perhaps more to come this summer), I suspect that the Court
 will no longer be obsessed with eradicating even harmless, passive displays
 of religion such as nativity scenes, Ten Commandment displays, etc. Perhaps
 the purpose prong of Lemon may soon ! be gone, making it easier for school
 boards to adopt curriculum such as ID critiques of evolution and making it
 more difficult for dissenters to throw out harmless religious displays such
 as those eradicated in McCreary.

 Frankly, I don't think folks want Christianity to be the official religion
 of America. I think they merely wish it to have a seat at the table, to
 allow Christmas as much a place in the public culture as Earth Day and
 National Coming Out Day.


 I think what is needed is a little less judicial government under the EC,
 and a little more democratic self-government at the state and local level.

 Cheers, Rick





 Rick Duncan
 Welpton Professor of Law
 University of Nebraska College of Law
 Lincoln, NE 68583-0902


 When the Round Table is ! broken every man must follow either Galahad or
 Mordred: middle things are gone. C.S.Lewis, Grand Miracle

 I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed, or
 numbered. --The Prisoner
  
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Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: The Flushing Remonstrance

2006-03-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
As someone who grew up in Flushing, I want to thank Perry for bringing
this statement to our attention. I recognized the image of the Bowne
house on the site, which I used to pass regularly in my youth. Local
history was not forgotten in the public school curriculum then,
either.

The fact that all the signatories had English, rather than Dutch,
names suggests some other factors that may have been at play over
Stuyvesant's ordinance, but the words resound nevertheless.

Vance


On 3/3/06, Perry Dane [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi all,

 I forgot to include a link to the text of said Flushing Remonstrance:

 http://www.nyym.org/flushing/remons.html


 Perry

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Re: FW from Marie Failinger: Issue for religion-law list

2006-03-02 Thread Vance R. Koven
I believe the bill in question is the one I quote excerpts from below, which would amend the state zoning enabling law. The ostensible purpose of the bill is to strengthen local zoning boards who adopt comprehensive community futures planning, but the amendments to the law quoted below are unconditional. The section that would be repealed is the one that has long been employed to defeat zoning prohibitions on churches (and schools) in residential neighborhoods, and in practice to avoid even the height and setback regulations specifically called out as permitted, as in the case of the huge Mormon temple in a residential area of the (toney) suburb of Belmont (where Gov. Romney lives). Thus, to suggest it's intended to spank the Catholic church might be underinclusive. Moreover, since the original text also spoke of religious purposes it's hard to see how the new text constricts the standard further, although certain permitted restrictions not previously mentioned are now specifically called out.
I don't know whether the revisions would bring Massachusetts law closer to that of other states, but it seems evident that to the extent RLUIPA would prohibit an exercise of a zoning board's authority, for example, to demand more parking than the church could accommodate on its property, there might be problems. Does the enactment of this statute by itself bootstrap a compelling interest on the part of the state, or is that presumed in the case of zoning laws under RLUIPA analysis? 
The material part of the text is as follows:SECTION 5. Said section 3 of said chapter 40A, as so appearing, is
hereby further amended by striking out, in lines 26-34 inclusive, the
words nor shall any such ordinance or by-law prohibit, regulate or
restrict the use of land or structures for religious
purposes or for educational purposes on land owned or leased by the
commonwealth or any of its agencies, subdivisions or bodies politic, or
by a religious
sect or denomination, or by a nonprofit educational corporation;
provided, however, that such land or structures may be subject to
reasonable regulations concerning the bulk and height of structures and
determining yard sizes, lot area, setbacks, open space, parking and
building coverage requirements. .SECTION
6. Said section 3 of said chapter 40A, as so appearing, is hereby
further amended by striking out the third paragraph and inserting in
place thereof the following paragraph: -Zoning ordinances or by-laws
shall not prohibit the use of land or structures thereon for: a)
educational purposes on land owned or leased by the Commonwealth or any
of its agencies, subdivisions or bodies politic or by a nonprofit
educational corporation; b) 
religious purposes by a religious
sect or denomination; c) the purposes of operating a child care
facility or d) the purposes of operating a community residential
program. As used in this section the following words shall have the
following meanings: a) educational purposes means public and
nonprofit private primary, secondary and higher educational purposes;
b) child care facility means a day care center or school age child
care program, as those terms are defined in section 9 of chapter
twenty-eight A; c) community residential program means a residential
facility licensed by the Commonwealth to provide care or shelter or
supervision or education to a maximum of eight (8) individuals with a
mental or physical disability or to victims of crime, of physical or
mental abuse, or of neglect in a small-scale residential setting with
on-site or off-site supervision. The land or structures used for such
purposes may, however, be subject to reasonable regulations regarding
the bulk and height of structures, yard sizes, frontage, lot area,
building coverage requirements, setbacks, floor area ratio, parking,
access and egress, lighting, drainage, landscaping, buffering and open
space, and similar matters. Compliance with such regulations may be
determined as provided by ordinance or by-law in each city or town,
including through site plan review under which reasonable conditions,
safeguards, and limitations to mitigate the impact of a specific use of
land or structures on the neighborhood may be imposed pursuant to
section seven A of this chapter. In addition, the application of such
regulations to particular land or structures used for such purposes may
be waived in whole or in part by special permit, and reasonable
conditions may be imposed as part of the special permit. The waiver may
be granted if the special permit granting authority finds, based upon
the evidence presented by the person seeking the waiver, that the
waiver will not result in substantially more detriment to the
neighborhood than the use of the particular land or structures for such
purposes without the waiver. On 3/1/06, Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
-Original Message-From: Marie A. Failinger [mailto:
[EMAIL PROTECTED]]Sent: Wednesday, March 01, 2006 11:41 AM. . .Ethan Burger, 

Re: Pink Triangles and Religious Liberty

2006-01-26 Thread Vance R. Koven
Since the discussion is non-constitutional at this point, isn't this the same policy issue presented when a Catholic school hires non-Catholic teachers, which they often do, and yet requires them to operate in classrooms with crucifixes in them? If the Catholic school can reiterate its institutional message by symbolic representation, regardless of the religious beliefs of the individual teachers, why can't a public school do the same (with respect to a secular message)? A religious objection to a religious message and a religious objection to a secular message seem to me to be on an equal footing.
VanceOn 1/26/06, Rick Duncan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  I also think there is anon-constitutional religious liberty policy issue when teachers are required to teach under a banner that violates their sincerely held religious beliefs?
-- Vance R. KovenBoston, MA USA[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Racist Man Sentenced To Attend Black Church

2006-01-17 Thread Vance R. Koven
All prosy dull society sinnersWho chatter and bleat and boreAre sent to hear sermonsFrom mystical GermansWho preach from ten till four.The Constitution, though, does seem to be an insuperable barrier to the exercise of judicial imagination. Pity.
On 1/17/06, Paul Finkelman [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Let the punishment fit the crime?Volokh, Eugene wrote: Constitutional?(I assume the sentence was for a racially motivated threat or perhaps racially motivated fighting words, and not literally for [in part] using racial slurs.)
 Eugene http://www.local6.com/news/6142521/detail.html A judge has sentenced a suburban Cincinnati man to attend services for
 six weeks at a black church for threatening to punch a black cab driver and using racial slurs. Judge William Mallory Jr. . . . let Haines choose between attending the black church for six Sundays or spending 30 days in jail. Haines said
 he'd try the church, although he doesn't usually worship on Sunday. Mallory offered Haines the choice Friday after Haines was convicted of disorderly conduct. He was arrested in November after threatening cab
 driver David Wilson and Wilson's wife. Mallory said he was concerned about maintaining the separation between church and state, so the judge asked Haines whether the option would offend him.
 Haines said he would like to try it. The cab driver said he wished Haines had been jailed instead because, in his words, Church don't change everybody. ___
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--Paul FinkelmanChapman Distinguished ProfessorUniversity of Tulsa College of Law3120 East 4th PlaceTulsa, Oklahoma74104-2499918-631-3706 (office)918-631-2194 (fax)
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Re: Home Schooling and Real Covenants

2006-01-05 Thread Vance R. Koven
Works for me. ;-)On 1/4/06, Will Linden [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Apropos of nothing in particular, this keeps showing up in my mail summaryas Home Schooling and Real Coven(s).___To post, send message to 
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Re: Property Law and Religious Liberty/Constituional Law

2006-01-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
Okay, I'll bite.Isn't the problem with Shelley (and the religion case it cited, Cantwell v. Connecticut) that even if you prevail and show that state court enforcement of the covenant is state action for 14th amendment purposes, you still have all the problems of bringing religious discrimination cases under the 14th Amendment--specifically, that per Smith the state *can* abridge free exercise if done under guise of a generally applicable law? At that point, all the state (or the private litigant under the covenant) would have to show is that it's rationally related to a legitimate regulatory objective, and cite frat parties and the like. Maybe, of course, there's no rational basis for such a regulation that restricts who, rather than how many, people can reside in the same home, but that's an issue apart from any connection to religion (at least under the facts stated).
What RLUIPA gets you is strict scrutiny when the land use regulation inhibits religious exercise; but in Mrs. Moore's case, that merely amounts to doing something for religious reasons that other people wouldn't be allowed to do for secular reasons. While building a church and having religious services is pretty much a unique occupation of religious organizations, housing friends and distant relatives isn't. While I wouldn't necessarily be embarrassed to make the argument that RLUIPA might apply to Mrs. Moore, I woudn't necessarily expect to win the case.
Of course, there's always the Ninth Amendment and Mrs. Moore's right to privacy, which is now a 14th amendment due process issue for the states, if anyone here thinks the courts retain a taste for emanations of penumbras (or was that penumbras of emanations?).
VanceOn 1/4/06, Rick Duncan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Here is a funreligious liberty/con law issue from my Property course syllabus. We read Moore v. City of East Cleveland, theSDP case in which the Court struck down a restrictive zoning ordinance that defined single family residential use in a way which prohibited a grandmother from living with her two grandsons (from separate branches of her family tree). You all know the case.
Well, suppose that instead of a restrictive zoning ordinance (which, of course, would be unconstitutional under Moore), Mrs. Moore was sued by a HOA to enforce a running covenant restricting her use of her own home to single family residential purposes only (with single family defined very restrictively as in 
Moore). Suppose futher that she took her two grandsons into her home following the deaths of their respective parents, and that she sincerely believes that her religious faith requires her to raise her otherwise !
 homeless
 grandchildren.Assume that, underthe state law of covenants running with the land,thestate courts would enforce thecovenant and orderMrs. Moore to evict one of her grandsons as an illegal occupant.
Is there sufficient state action to trigger SDP under the 14th Amendment? Does Shelley apply to all cases involving restrictive covenants (includingsingle faimly restrictions as above and speech-restricting covenants such as those prohibiting large C-band satellite dishes and outside antennas).
Does RLUIPA protect her right toobey her religious conscience against the substantial burden imposedupon her free exercise by the law of running covenants under RLUIPA's definition of land use regulations.
I swear, the Property class could be taught in large part as a religious liberty/con law class! 
   Rick Duncan  Rick Duncan Welpton Professor of Law University of Nebraska College of Law Lincoln, NE 68583-0902  
  When the Round Table is broken every man must follow either Galahad or Mordred: middle things are gone. C.S.Lewis, Grand MiracleI will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed, or numbered. --The Prisoner

	
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Re: Home Schooling and Real Covenants

2006-01-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
Is it a reasonable distinction between contracts and covenants running with the land that the law has traditionally considered contracts for the sale/possession of real estate to be unique because each parcel of land is unique (so that, for example, you can get specific performance of a contract to deliver real estate, while you generally can't for movables without lots of special circumstances)?
The public policy argument concerning classic covenants rests largely on hostility to *restraints* on alienation. A contract that can be freely assigned fulfills that policy, while a covenant that says you can't sell to so-and-so or for such-and-such flouts it. Zoning laws, drawing on state police power, circumvent that common-law public policy by creating a new one.
VanceOn 1/4/06, Steven Jamar [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
On Jan 4, 2006, at 2:52 PM, Rick Duncan wrote:I agree with Michael that courts may be reluctant to adopt myview of the law of running covenants as a type of zoning regime(actually it is not mine, I have heard others make a similar argument as a better way to understand 
Shelley).   But again, once you distinguish between the private covenants themselves and the body of law that permits enforcement against non-covenanting parties, it is difficult to reject the conclusion that the 
law of covenants is state action and is a kind of zoning scheme. Although judicial enforcement between the original covenanting parties of the promises they actually made to each othermay not be state action, legal enforcement against third parties looks very much like a regulatory program.
And so back to contracts -- the body of law that permits parties to enforce their agreements. The body of law argument is just a very tough one to make.The enforcement against others -- well my mortgage is with a company I never heard of -- a 3d party -- through assignment. And is that not very much the same thing? A body of law that permits enforcement against me by someone I never met or entered into a contract with? I consented to the assignment.
They consented to assume the mortgage.Rights between parties who did not contract with each other are enforceable because a body of law says we do not need strict privity.
And we could, of course, go on to warranty, and third party beneficiaries, and so on.Again, I think Rick's argument is flawed and wrong -- but still plausible enough to be entertained. I just reject it.
Steve 
--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar
vox: 202-806-8017
Howard University School of Law   
fax: 202-806-8567
2900 Van Ness Street NW 

mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]Washington, DC
 20008  

http://www.law.howard.edu/faculty/pages/jamar/
The best that education can give [is] the notion that responsibility and delight can coexist.

Philip Pullman, crediting his secondary school teacher Enid Jones, in The New Yorker, p. 58 (Dec. 26, 2005 and Jan 2, 2006) 
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Re: Secularization of Christmas

2005-12-23 Thread Vance R. Koven
I think Daniel Henninger had the right idea in his December 16 column in the Wall Street Journal (that bastion of religious sentiment). Christmas is really two separate holidays and should be so understood and publicly acknowledged. The celebration of the birth of Christ is a religious holiday observed by a minority of Americans, and observed in passing by others. The other holiday, the one with Santa Claus and evergreen trees and gift-giving (and gift-buying) and sleigh rides and chestnuts roasting on an open fire, that's an entirely secular/cultural holiday that almost anybody in America celebrates or can celebrate. It should have its own name: let's call it Yule. Its principal justification is the celebration of generosity and good fellowship, which I think most of us can get behind.
The fact that Yule is at some historical remove related to or derivative of Christmas is about as relevant as that December 25 was the date of a pagan holiday or that humans and Zinjanthropus are biologically related. One of the reasons for the draconian Puritan laws in New England forbidding the celebration of Christmas was because, centuries ago, the Christmas holiday in England and elsewhere had become taken over by those celebrating Yule, getting drunk and rowdy. That Yule is fully secular, as much so as (more than, I think) Thanksgiving, is surely demonstrated by its being celebrated in Japan and China, where there are no Christians to speak of. 
Thus understood, public displays for Yule should be permitted on cultural grounds, but displays relating to Christmas (e.g., creches) should be subject at the very least to the rule of multifariousness: OK to acknowledge in context with other religious celebrations as part of the salad-bowl culture, but not by themselves. Today I passed by the holiday display in the City of Quincy, Massachusetts, which had a snowman, a Santa Claus, a nutcracker (!), and a menorah (!!). If there was anything denoting Kwanzaa, I didn't see it. I think the public, and its representatives, and its judges, are deeply confused, and a sorting out of holidays might help.
Lots of Jewish, Hindu, Buddhist and probably Muslim Americans celebrate Yule, though they don't celebrate Christmas. For that matter, lots of nominal Christians only celebrate Yule. Nobody is obligated to celebrate Yule, Thanksgiving, Labor Day, Mother's Day or any other purely cultural holiday, but I see no promotion of religion in celebrating any of these. The war over Christmas is a war over a false definition.
On 12/23/0 (!!)5, Paul Horwitz [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Given the wealth of examples Belz cites, all of which occurred even beforethe end of the first week of December, might he not have begun askinghimself whether his operating thesis -- that the secularists are
attempting to secularize the Christmas season -- is not itself due forreexamination, or at least for the application of a little more nuance andcare?If USA Today, the Hollywood studios, and NPR -- of all places --
are all, in one way or another, adding religious content to the publicsquare, or at least recognizing the centrality of Christmas in manyAmericans' lives, then rather than asking whether the secularists have
failed to win their point, might he instead inquire into whether theattack on Christmas he apparently believes is failing even exists in thefirst place, beyond some isolated factoids?
-- Vance R. KovenBoston, MA USA[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Vance R. Koven
As one who over the last few weeks has been made painfully--very painfully--aware of this design, it appears to point to the inescapable reality that there is no necessary correlation between intelligence and benevolence.
VanceOn 12/21/05, Ed Darrell [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
No, urethra design is not beside the point at all. Is there an intelligent design explanation for that design? There is an evolutionary explanation (though not wholly satisfactory to many). How could such a thing have happened, according to intelligent design theory? 
The absence of any possible answer to that question points to the lack of science behind ID. That is the whole issue.Ed Darrell  Dallas
Perry Dane [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:  
Robert Lipkin wrote:I would argue that Steve's inference from the facts of disease, war,violence, inequity, inequality, stupidity of some design features (knees, elbows,
eyes) to the conclusion that no omnipotent, omniscient, and morally perfect(lovin!
 g) deity
 exists is a perfectly legitimate inference. That is, the factsof evil and suffering are incompatible with the existence of such a deity,and this incompatibility must be explained away for anyone to 
recognize thesefacts but still insist on the deity's existence.To be fair to the intelligent design folks, their argument is not that the design of the universe IS intelligent, in the sense 
of optimal, or efficient, or morally good, or aesthetically pleasing, but rather that certain facts of the universe point to it having been designed BY AN intelligence.This does not, of course, answer Robert's theological 
argument, but it does suggest that the usual anti-intelligent-design jokes about the proximity of the prostate gland to the urethra are really beside the point.Perry***
Perry DaneProfessor of LawRutg!
 ers
 UniversitySchool of Law -- Camden217 North Fifth StreetCamden, NJ 08102[EMAIL PROTECTED]
www.camlaw.rutgers.edu/bio/925/Work: (856) 225-6004Fax: (856) 969-7924Home: (610) 896-5702
***___To post, send message to 
Religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduTo subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see 
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___To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.eduTo subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see 
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-- Vance R. KovenBoston, MA USA[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: UK case

2005-08-04 Thread Vance R. Koven
I don't think that Rix LJ proposed that just because the employer has a
need its actions are inherently reasonable. I think what he said was
that because the employer had a need, the justification provisions of
Article 9 were engaged and required an offer of reasonable
accommodation (he also said, alternatively, that offering a reasonable
accommodation meant that there was no material interference with
religion to which Article 9 attaches, but this comes to the same
thing). The lower court found that the employer had made reasonable
attempts to accommodate based on offering Copsey a different job at the
same location (albeit with less pay, which I don't think would pass
muster in US litigation) or a similar job at another location (which
would be reasonable or not in the US based probably on how far away it
was from Copsey's home, etc.). 

Since I don't do any litigation of employment matters, I'm not familiar
enough with our statutory scheme to say whether a lower court or
administrative finding of reasonableness on a record such as appeared
in Copsey would be treated as a fact finding (normally, reasonableness
is considered a jury--therefore fact--matter), but if it were, the
appeals court could only overrule it if it were manifestly contrary to
the evidence. It was unclear to me from reading the Copsey opinions
whether the same standard applies in England, but I can envision a
court here coming out (that is, finding for the employer) just as it
did in Copsey, for the same technical reason--that the lower court
could have found, on the record, that the employer's accommodation
offers were reasonable, and that, to say the least, nothing in the ECHR
rulings demanded a higher standard.

On 8/4/05, Paul Diamond [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:







Thanks for this reply; 

I am interest by the US principle that 'no rule' is established in 
circumstances in which the conlcusion is similar. Mummery LJ held himself 
bound, unless over-ruled by the Hof Lords and Rix LJ says Article 9 is engaged 
but can't interfere (even though this means the lower courts asked the wrong 
questions).

I am interested on what basis a US court would feel free to challenge lower 
court fact finding; as noted the lower courts did not ask the correct questions 
on religious rights or accommodation, but use a 'reasonableness' test and since 
the employer has a need he is reasonable!

Paul Diamond

  - Original Message - 
  
From: 
  Vance R. Koven 
  
  To: 
Law  Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Wednesday, August 03, 2005 2:56 
  PM
  Subject: Re: UK case
  I find it difficult to figure out what principle to adduce from 
  this case. If it were a panel opinion of a US Court of Appeals, there would be 
  no rule established, since there were three opinions, all concurring in the 
  result, but diverging significantly on the law. While Mummery and Rix, LJJ, 
  would agree that the European Court of Human Rights has something to say that 
  affects how UK employment law cases should be decided, only Lord Justice 
  Mummery would give the ECHR case law binding effect to defeat the employee's 
  claim. The case thus does not turn on a point of European law, but on the 
  prosaic basis that an appellate court should not upset the trial court's 
  finding of fact that the employer offered a reasonable accommodation to the 
  employee's request not to work on Sundays. I'm not sure a US court would reach 
  the same result on the facts of the case, but I think the principle of 
  reasonable accommodation is consistent with our jurisprudence.It is 
  noteworthy that all three justices agreed that the ECHR case law on the 
  subject of taking days off for sabbath observance is, as they were too polite 
  to put it, bizarre and in apparent contradiction to the intent of Article 9 of 
  the Human Rights Convention. Lord Justice Rix probably put the best face on 
  what the ECHR has ruled by focusing on the question of whether it was the 
  employer or employee who sought a change in pre-existing terms of employment; 
  but even he couldn't abide the Stedman case, and discreetly chose to write it 
  off as an aberration (a judicial sleight-of-hand that I'm sure we're all 
  familiar with). By contrast, Lord Justice Mummery was prepared to accept the 
  proposition (paraphrasing Justice Stewart's dissent in Von's Groceries) that 
  the only consistency in the law is that the employer always wins.
  On 8/2/05, Paul 
  Diamond [EMAIL PROTECTED]  
  wrote:
  


  
  Dear All,
  
  Not sure how this works; can you confirm if you have received 
  this? I am Paul Diamond from the real Cambridge (UK, not MA)!
  
  This was a recent case in our Court of Appeal Copsey v WBB; you 
  may find it interesting and ignore the Euro jargan; would be interest in 
  your views.www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/ew/cases/EWCA/Civ/2005/932.html 
  
  
  Paul

Re: FW: Interesting question: Portland Archdiocese Filing Chapter 11

2004-07-08 Thread Vance R. Koven
At 03:59 PM 7/7/2004, Steven Jamar wrote:
Let us not forget that it was the church's actions that brought about the 
problems for which it is finally being held accountable.  It should pay 
for its malfeasance.
Not only will it pay in terms of court interference, it may find itself 
paying in ways it thought it was avoiding. Many of the abuse cases allege 
that the church fraudulently concealed priests' predatory bent when 
assigning them to new parishes. Since a claim sounding in fraud is not 
dischargeable under the Bankruptcy Code, the diocese might not get all the 
relief from a petition that it thinks it will get.

Vance R. Koven
Boston, Massachusetts USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED] 

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Re: Hansen case or, Clueless in Ann Arbor

2004-04-19 Thread Vance R. Koven
While this case is easily accessed on Westlaw or Lexis, a free copy is 
available at:
http://www.michbar.org/opinions/district/2003/120503/21290.pdf

Judge Rosen was harsh indeed on the school and the advisers to this event, 
not without reason.

There are a couple of points that intrigue me, one of which is this: in 
both the free speech and establishment clause discussions, the court 
focused (naturally enough) on the school's complete blacklisting of the 
plaintiff's viewpoint. In footnote 29, in the EC discussion, the court said 
that even if the plaintiff's viewpoint had been represented by one out of 
the six panelists, the exercise might have violated the Lemon test's second 
prong by favoring religion over irreligion. One might wonder if a panel as 
unbalanced as that could still be considered favoring one religion over 
another, without getting to the religious vs. irreligious issue.

Putting aside for the moment the excessive entanglement issue involved in 
influencing the panel's composition, suppose that a school wants to 
reconstruct the program that the court invalidated in Hansen, and decides 
that it can do exactly what Ann Arbor did, but include on the panel a) the 
dumbest hayseed of a fundamentalist it could find, who would be a poor 
spokesperson for the traditionalist viewpoint, and b) one atheist who was 
pro-gay. Would that pass muster?

My other question, which is off-topic in the sense that it arises under 
the free speech part of the opinion, is whether there was something 
inherently problematic in turning over the homosexuality and religion panel 
to the GSA to run. The court didn't make that much of this point, which 
surprised me a bit. Would nobody have cause to complain if a school turned 
over a panel on Youth in Politics to the Young Republicans? Even if the YRs 
were the only ones volunteering to run it? And if the distinction hinges on 
issue partisanship vs. party partisanship, is there any real distinction 
between government speech and government-sponsored speech? If the 
government itself could issue statements exhorting the public to accept 
propositions that many of them morally, religiously, or just plain 
pragmatically abhor, then why can't it recruit subalterns to do the same 
thing? Maybe the 10th Circuit was right in principle in the Columbine case 
(even though its case law analysis was weak).

Vance R. Koven
Boston, Massachusetts USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]  

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