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On 10/27/2012 03:16 AM, Deepa Mohan wrote:
> On Sat, Oct 27, 2012 at 8:54 AM, SS <[email protected]> wrote:
>> On Sat, 2012-10-27 at 04:46 +0200, Charles Haynes wrote:
>>> Do you have a six sided die? What do you think the chances are
>>> that you will roll a 1?
> 
> 50-50. Either I will roll a 1, or I will not.  And since I turned
> 98 on FB, thank you for calling me (intellectually, at least) a
> child!
> 
> By the way, it was Founder's Day on this mailing list on October
> 23. Happy Foundering!
> 
> Deepa.
> 

The probability that you will or will not roll a 1 is .5. The
probability that the roll will result in a 1 is 1 in 6, given the event
that you have rolled a six sided die. You can reduce most events to will
or will not happen. That isn't the true representation of that scenario
though.

It can only be .5 if there are two equally probable events. How you are
presenting them is not in terms of the probability of those outcomes,
but in that given two discrete categories (1 or 2,3,4,5,6) the
probability is .5 that you will land on 1.

The inverse of rolling a one is important as well. The probability of
rolling a 2 must also be .5, according to your interpretation. But since
all possible probabilities must sum to 1, .5(6)=3 (or .5 added for each
of the six possible events) is a contradiction, not to mention
impossible given that probability is a continuum from 0 to 1.

Given your terms:
In terms of a lottery, there are n people who participate. My odds of
winning must be .5, either I do win or I don't. However, what if there
is only one person who participates in the lottery, and that person is
me? Isn't my odds of not winning 0, since I would always win?

However in a system where probability is always calculated by the
desired events divided by the total number of possible outcomes, this
contradiction is explained, and empirically valid with your perceived
paradox with conventional frequency based probability. Given one desired
outcome (rolling a 1) and two potential outcomes (rolling or not rolling
a 1) the expression becomes 1 in 2. Charles' example though derives from
rolling a 1 as opposed to rolling a 1,2,3,4,5,6. With the same equation
structure of desired out of total outcomes, you get 1/6. Here is where
your interpretation breaks down though: what is the probability of
rolling a red? Your view would have either red, or not rolling a red,
thus 50-50. However, you can never roll a red. So the probability is
accurately reflected as 1/0.

landon

- -- 
Violence is the last refuge of the incompetent.
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