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I have
a bit of a question. I know the average commentator will say that blasphemy of
the Holy Spirit is some thing humans can do now - today. The person in green
below (Bill, I think) claims Hebrews speaks of it as a trampling underfoot the Son of God. What
if the definition is considerably more... confined? If I may, please read the
following passage:
The Scribes [...] were saying, "He is possessed by
Baalzibbul," and "He casts out the demons by the rulers of the
demons."
And [Yeshua] called them to Himself and began
speaking to them in parables, "How
can Satan cast out Satan?
If a kingdom is divided against
itself, that kingdom cannot stand. If a house
is divided against itself, that house will not be able to stand. If Satan has risen up against himself and is divided, he
cannot stand, but he is finished! But no one can enter the
strong man's house and plunder his property unless he first binds the strong
man, and then he will plunder his house.
"Truly I say to
you, all sins shall be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they
utter; but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has
forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin"
(because they were saying, 'He has an unclean
spirit.')
Please pay close attention to the last sentence of Marcus 3:22-30. Yeshua
tells us what blasphemy against the Spirit of the Holy One is. Now my
question... Is this kind of sin that can be committed only by those who SEE THE
MIRACLES OF YESHUA AND CLAIM THEY ARE DONE BY HASATAN?
-- slade
-----Original Message-----
From:
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[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]On Behalf Of
ShieldsFamily
Sent: Thursday, 22 July, 2004 17:10
To:
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: RE: [TruthTalk] God
Hates
Bill: I'm
not real sure where the problem is on this one, Izzy. But I will give it a
shot. There is in Scripture the mention (in various ways) of an unpardonable
sin, a sin for which there is no forgiveness. In Mark 3 Jesus identifies it as
the blasphemy of the Holy Sprit.* The preacher to the Hebrews calls it a
trampling underfoot the Son of God.** Peter says it is a denial or refusal of
the Lord who redeemed us.*** And John refers to it as the sin which leads to
death.**** All of these occurrences (and there are others) have at
their source a conflict between the person of Christ and some
faction or another of religious leaders, men (or women, if we are speaking in
terms of today) who claim a stature or position of knowledge
and authority. In each case these are men who blatantly reject Jesus
Christ -- they are called "false prophets"; certain ones of them are
"Pharisees"; they are "anti-christs," "deceivers," "wolves in sheep's
clothing." And in each case there is a blatant refusal to accept Jesus as
who he claims or is claimed to be. And so, the blasphemy of the Holy
Spirit, which is described in each of these instances, is, I believe, a
refusal on the part of humans, and especially any who hold positions of
religious influence over other people, to receive the convicting witness
and testimony and call of the Holy Spirit as to the truth of Jesus Christ, his
salvific act, his personal and corporate identity, and/or his
divine nature. These are those to whom I
believe Christ was referring when he said he will say: "Away from
me, I never knew you" (I must also add that I believe until a
person, even one of these really rotten ones, takes his or
her last breath, there is still time to repent. Nevertheless, John seems
to indicate that at some point a person can become so hardened, after so many
wonderful but squandered opportunities, that he will not and perhaps can
not repent. See cf. 1 Joh 5 -- "I do not ask that [you] pray for [the one who
commits the sin which leads to death]").
Bill
the scripture that I quoted above did not refer to blasphemy of the Holy
Spirit. Jesus said,
“unless you repent, you will all likewise perish.” How much more clearly
can He state it? Can you admit that refusal to repent of sin IS a rejection of
Jesus? Can we agree on
that?
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