Re: [TruthTalk] Definition of Mormon Please

[Dave Hansen]

DAVEH:  Yes, John.  I understand that you see it that way.  But why?  Why do you think Jesus represents the Son of Mankind?  I'm not sure that makes any sense to me.  I view Jesus as being a divine being, a deity from before the world was created.  Do you not believe likewise?  Isn't that why he was called the Son of God?  Do you think he became less than the Son of God, or less than divine when he was on the earth?  It seems to me that for Protestants to consider him reduced to mankind status would be contrary to his divine authorship.  In fact, that's the charge many have leveled against LDS theology, that we have reduced God to mankind status in effect.  So it somewhat surprises me that you would suggest such, JD. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: In a message dated 2/4/2005 8:43:23 PM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes: DAVEH:  Where did you get that idea, Kevin?  Son of Man refers to Jesus, and I stipulated such several days ago.  What I am trying to point out to you is the root meaning of Son of Man....in that Jesus' Father is a man who has been exalted and now resides in heaven.  That's why he is called Heavenly Father, which is distinctly different than the Son of Man.  Heavenly Father is the Man part of the title for Jesus, who is the Son of Man. Actually, I believe that we have the Son of Mankind and the Son of God   The incarnation brought these two worlds together  -  God in the flesh  -  reconciling man to Himself.   does this makes any sense to you, Dave.   JD -- ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Dave Hansen [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.langlitz.com ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ If you wish to receive things I find interesting, I maintain six email lists... JOKESTER, OPINIONS, LDS, STUFF, MOTORCYCLE and CLIPS.