Daivid, David , David -- what does the fact that " the unique Son is forever intimately a part (in the bosom) of the Father" have to do with the syntax of John 1:1-18??? I suggest absolutely nothing. If the son is FOREVER in the bosom - there is no "before or after the Word." i"18 states a fact without regard to syntax.
JD
-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Fri, 24 Jun 2005 10:50:42 -0400
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Eternal Sonship
John wrote: > John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time. > The only unique (begotten) Son who is in > (eis) the bosom of the Father, He has declared > Him." > > This may be one of the strongest NT passages declaring > the eternal Sonship. Doesn't it strike you how the apostle John here does not refer to him as Son until after he speaks of the Logos being made flesh (John 1:14)? When properly exegeted within its context, John 1:18 is one of the strongest NT passages AGAINST the eternal Sonship doctrine! Peace be with you. David Miller. ---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
