[Winona Online Democracy]

Terri and others,

Part of my question remains unanswered, if I stated it correctly was "Is it
polygamy if a male or female married "both" a person of the same sex and one
of the opposite sex based on the current definition of Polygamy by the
Supreme Court Decisions?"  The text of the rulings which I found only relate
to either a male having two or more wives or a female having two or more
husbands.  Having one of each doesn't seem to be illegal. If then one of
each is not polygamy then will it open the door for a challenge of the
earlier rulings as being discriminatory for a male or female to have more
than one current marriage to members of the opposite sex.

Why should any employer provide healthcare benefits to anyone outside of the
employee?  When they do is it not discriminatory to singles since their
compensation is not increased to match the cost of the married employee
doing the same job but not at the same compensation cost?  In many cases
this is thousands of dollars per year in pay inequity.  In addition does it
not promote marriage as a way to provide healthcare coverage to someone
without coverage at a cost to an employer and without any job related
productivity gain on behalf of the employed employee?

Paul Double

  

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On
Behalf Of terri hyle
Sent: Wednesday, February 11, 2004 3:19 PM

[Winona Online Democracy]

Paul, I'd like to address the following and to suggest that legalizing 
marriage between two men or two women would in fact eliminate the problem

You wrote:
"
In a recent TV news report a gay male couple had children with the consent
of a woman who agreed to give birth.  The other male partner now wished to
have a child by the same woman and she has agreed.  While she will be the
mother of all the children they will have different fathers. If one of the
fathers dies who gets custody?   Who has the financial obligation to raise
the children including but not limited to their healthcare? Will the
employer of any one of the three be on the hook for healthcare?"


If the two men in question were married, this could, would and should easily

be handled as with any surrogate parent situation.  A couple (man/woman, 
man/man or even woman/woman if for some reason neither can bear a child) 
contracts with a woman to bear a child for them, using sperm and/or egg 
(depending on situation and availability) and the woman conceives and bears 
the child, turning the child over to the couple after the birth. A similar 
situation would exist if the couple were in need of sperm instead of 
eggs/womb.   The non-genetically related partner can then adopt the child, 
making the child legally the child of both parents, regardless of DNA or 
gender.  As with any adopted child or biological child, health care benefits

can be easily extended to the child (and, I might mention, to the partner) 
as part of an employee benefit package.  Custody rights, rights of 
inheritance, etc. would follow whatever family law standards and laws were 
in place for heterosexual couples. Divorce laws and settlements need be no 
different than for heterosexual couples.   I don't see how or why gay 
couples who wish to form a family  and who wish to be parents need to be 
treated differently than heterosexual couples.

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